Why Did Pastors Discard the KJV?

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It fits the way Christ came to us—humble and especially accessible to those who otherwise felt left out. Somehow, expecting people to know Christ better through first becoming familiar with 400-year-old language makes him seem to me too aloof and distant; too much a Savior of ecclesiastical specialists, and not enough a Savior of ordinary sinners.

I saith this is a valid point.
 
You feel that times have changed and we must break unity with the English speaking church of the past and the present because the KJV is not 'accessible' enough. Therefore, you feel that accessibility is paramount to unity.

Not really. I hardly want to "break away." I like unity with the church of the past. I think the confessions are good for us and necessary. I think many of the old hymns are wonderful and should be more widely sung. I love reading the Puritans and wish more people would do so. And I like the KJB Bible and appreciate many things about it. My copy sets on my nearest bookshelf and often finds its way to my work desk. I use my ESV more often, but that too I have chosen in large part because it intentionally retains more ties to the historical language of the English Scriptures than do many of the much more "accessible" new translations.

So do I feel accessibility is paramount to unity with the church of the past? I don't think so. Both seem to be affirmed biblically. I think I'd like to see a healthy measure of each, if we can manage that.
 
So do I feel accessibility is paramount to unity with the church of the past? I don't think so.

Do you think it is a good thing that Pastors stopped preaching from the Version that English speakers were unified around for hundreds of years because it was inaccessible? I don't see how that is not making accessibility paramount to unity.

Even if we assume your point, who gets to decide which version is accessible? Does each individual make that choice for himself based upon what is most accessible to him? Does each church make that choice for its congregation? Is it the head of the family that decides? Is it the Presbytery that decides? Eventually unity must take precedence or you end up with the scenario I described.
 
A question: do I not have unity with the church in China, or the ancient church Paul wrote to at Ephesus, because I use a different translation of the same Scriptures? I don't fully understand the argument about unity having to be around a particular translation?
 
Do you think it is a good thing that Pastors stopped preaching from the Version that English speakers were unified around for hundreds of years because it was inaccessible? I don't see how that is not making accessibility paramount to unity.

An analogy: If I replace one serving of steak a week with a salad, this does not make me a vegetarian. It only means I acknowledge that, as much as I enjoy steak, salads are good too. In the same way, if I believe it was a good thing for some pastors to switch from the KJV (and in many instances I believe it was) it means I give up that particular bit of unity in favor of some badly needed accessibility. But I don't chuck out all unity in favor of endless accessibility. There are still many things I treasure that join us to believers of long ago. By giving up that one serving of steak I'm not necessarily making a statement about all steaks and salads.
 
Was Reformation-era thinking based on the idea that all else being equal, obscure and foreign-sounding was more profitable to the church than clear and accessible?

I am gathering "obscure" and "foreign-sounding" is your evaluation of the AV. To me the NIV can be "obscure" and "foreign-sounding." One would have to prove the point before reformation-era thinking on that point became relevant. I can show contexts where the language of the AV is still used and must therefore be deemed relevant. It should be noted that "archaic" does not amount to "obscure" or "foreign." Archaisms are part and parcel of quality literature and regularly used to good effect. When one sees an article headed with "Love thy neighbour," I don't think there is any doubt as to the meaning. I can also show places where the NIV simply transliterates words and leaves the reader without any clue as to what is being referred to. Then there is the problem of an indefinite number in second person pronouns. Where the pronouns change in discourse the reader is regularly left with wrong impressions. "Ye (Jews) must be born again" becomes "You (Nicodemus) must be born again." One only needs to see a bumper-sticker to see the impact this obscure translation has had on the masses. "Ye (Jews) say that in Jerusalem is the place where men ought to worship" becomes "You (Jesus) say..." That is obscurity; and it occurs literally thousands of times throughout the modern translations.

I hope I'm not sounding argumentative. I find it helpful to discuss these things and appreciate the back-and-forth.

I don't find anything wrong with clearly stating one's point of view, especially when it helps others to get to the core of an issue. So please speak as freely as you need.

I think on an emotional level, though, accessibility carries a lot of weight with me... and it should.

I consider that to be a solid consideration. From my point of view, though, the value of accessibility must be determined by the value of the THING to be accessed. If accessibility means changing the nature of the translation so as to be either directly or indirectly misleading, the value of accessibility is diminished.
 
A question: do I not have unity with the church in China, or the ancient church Paul wrote to at Ephesus, because I use a different translation of the same Scriptures? I don't fully understand the argument about unity having to be around a particular translation?

Ephesians 4 speaks of an unity to be maintained and an unity to be attained. The former is essential; the latter is instrumental. The one is established on the basis of things which are essential to being a believer in Christ; the other is reached through the ministerial gifts with which Christ has graced His church. "Speaking the same things" falls into the second category. The ministry gives us translations, creeds, confessions, catechisms, order, discipline, etc. Where there is division on these things the church is not speaking the same things, even though the essential unity of the church continues to be maintained.

It is odd that Presbyterians can agree on the importance of an unified subordinate standard but cannot agree that the same importance attaches to the supreme standard on which the subordinate standard ought to rest.
 
Thank you, Rev. Winzer: I am always grateful when you take the trouble to answer my questions.

I think of the Westminster Confession as translated into Spanish -- the Presbyterian Churches that hold to it use a different translation of the confession, and of the Scriptures, but I have never felt disunity with the confessing Spanish Presbyterians over that, or that they hold to a different standard. I understand that it would be a practical hindrance to the experience of unity if people are not bilingual. Is it not too far afield to think of what you have described from Eph. 4 as the 'elements and circumstances' of unity? Or am I misunderstanding still?
 
the Presbyterian Churches that hold to it use a different translation of the confession, and of the Scriptures, but I have never felt disunity with the confessing Spanish Presbyterians over that, or that they hold to a different standard.

Perhaps Turretin's distinction of verba and vox might come in helpful. They are obviously different words if rendered in a different language, but the meaning should be the same. If it were translated so as to give a different meaning that would certainly introduce division to the degree that the difference was of any importance.

Is it not too far afield to think of what you have described from Eph. 4 as the 'elements and circumstances' of unity? Or am I misunderstanding still?

I don't think that will work. Elements and circumstances must pertain to the same thing. The "unity" in this case is of two different kinds. One might see another truly believe and love the Lord and embrace that believer as such; however, one might see the same individual communing in an unlawful way and be obliged to withdraw from that communion. There is unity to be maintained in the first instance, but an unity which is not yet attained in the second.
 
I don't fully understand the argument about unity having to be around a particular translation?

No one is saying it 'has to be' but, as Rev Winzer said, being unified in language should be desired. I am simply arguing against the feeling that accessibility is obviously paramount to unity. What happened at Babel was a curse, not a blessing.
 
If the modern translations had just used good Southern American English the main point of contention would have been moot. 'You all' (or better, ya'll) as opposed to 'you' conveys the plurality of the second person jes' fine...
 
Then (please forgive me if I'm not grasping this readily: I want to make sure I am understanding all the distinctions) would 'speaking the same things' and the unity to be attained be able to apply only to people in the same language group -- who are able to use the same translation of the Scriptures or of the confession? Or was the verba/vox distinction with reference to the unity that is to be attained?
 
The reason in my opinion has been the "dumbing" down of our culture from having to think critically or heaven forbid you have to look a word up in the dictionary. A good point of reference on this position is a book by T.David Gordon, titled, "Why Johnny Can't Preach. It's a good read and the data that he provides is insightful into a number of issues with our culture's short attention span.

Why Johnny Can't Preach: The Media Have Shaped the Messengers: T. David Gordon: 9781596381162: Amazon.com: Books

While it may be good and helpful for people to use archaic translations in their private worship, I tend to think it is a bad idea for public worship. It's not a matter of "heaven forbid someone have to look up a word," because (1) dictionaries are not readily available in church pews and (2) some parishioners could not use one anyway. My son, for example, is autistic. There is no way that he would ever understand the KJV, but he does grasp at least some of more modern translations. My daughter is slightly deaf and has a limited vocabulary. She, too, struggles with comprehension. We read Shakespeare at home, but I have to be on hand to explain it to her, which is difficult to do in the middle of a worship service. We take other measures, like reading the Bible passages ahead of time so that the children can understand the sermon more easily.

But it is a lack of charity to those who struggle with learning disabilities to characterize everyone who can't use the KJV effectively as stupid and lazy. I'm not saying that this was your intent, but I have heard it done before.

In a discussion at church some years ago, someone complained scornfully at a meeting of "catering to the lowest common denominator," and I noted aloud that people ought to remember that the lowest common denominator in this church was my son.

It's not that everything needs to necessarily be at his level. But if something small can be changed to make it easier for people who struggle--then why not do that? Why put a stumbling block of archaic language in front of a child who has enough problems already? For that reason, I tend to think of KJV-only churches as uncharitable, even if they do not intend to be so. It is the linguistic equivalent of failing to have a handicapped ramp.

Thanks for sharing your thoughts Caroline. Yes, by no means was my intent to characterize everyone, it was really directed to the problem at large. I too have an autistic child (Who I read your children's catechism to every night, thank you for that) and I agree that teaching him the KJV verbiage would not work. I wasn't even thinking of it in a worship context and you bring up some good points around that. I was trying to address the question around why our Pastor's are not using the KJV especially when they reference it at times to be a better or more accurate translation.

Now that I think of it, I think the bigger question might be, "Given all of the numerous bible translations out there, how can I be sure which ones are orthodox and which ones are not?" I think a good use case would be ESV versus the Message; Does it matter? Forgive me for not constructing greater detail around my comments.

Thank you for your clarifications. I had momentarily forgotten that your son is autistic, or actually failed to properly notice to whom I was replying. :) So of course you are well aware of the challenges--and perhaps even more than me.

I did not mean to imply that you were characterizing people that way--only that it effectively leads to that sometimes when people go too far in the pursuit of intellectual worship.

As soon as I defend one side, of course, I have a nagging idea that there is another side, and your post made me think of it again. I do love the intellect of Reformed churches, even as I protest sometimes against its excesses when my children struggle. But I despise the willful ignorance of many (well, nearly all) Pentecostal churches. It was an irony that Pentecostal churches that I attended were almost exclusively KJV, which I never really understood considering how they despised learning.

It is a balance that I do not know that I have yet found. I confess that I would not like to attend a church that sang simplistic Jesus-loves-me choruses, and yet sometimes I feel guilty that my children do not benefit much from the highly complex psalms and hymns. I do believe, however, that my church deeply loves my children, and love overcomes whatever insufficiency may exist in other realms. Their tenderness toward my son is wonderful, even while he is not the easiest kid to tolerate (he tends to talk loudly and right in people's faces, and has been known to shout, "Excuse me!" to the congregation when he burped during a sermon.) On the bright side, as an usher, he's quite a shake-down artist, as he tends to stand there holding the plate in front of people until they put something in it, sometimes going so far as to whisper, "Did you forget your money?", and the church has done better financially since Kevin joined the ushering team.

But all that just to say that I suppose sometimes my judgments are harsh. I like churches to consider how learning disabled people struggle to comprehend Reformed worship... and yet, ultimately, that doesn't even seem to be the main thing. Perhaps it means I have to teach them more at home, but they benefit from the love of the congregation, even if not directly from the preaching.
 
Or was the verba/vox distinction with reference to the unity that is to be attained?

It only applies to translation, and I only thought it would be helpful because you mentioned people speaking other languages. People can speak the same thing in different languages, so I don't see why it should be limited to all speaking the same language. To clarify, "speak the same thing" comes from 1 Cor. 1:10. It is often used to support some degree of uniformity in the church's profession of faith and practice of godliness. Where the supreme standard in English differs from one person to another, one wonders from what source a body of people derives its ability to speak the same thing.
 
Thank you, Rev. Winzer. I had looked up 1 Cor. 1:10. I do love the way that section follows on in further chapters to the coherence of all things not in any particular minister or ministry but of all ministers and ministries in belonging to Christ, and Christ to God.

I think I understand what is being put forward better now. Thank you again for your time and care.
 
I give up that particular bit of unity in favor of some badly needed accessibility.

Do you believe that it is up to each individual to make this decision?

As we're talking about pastors choosing a translation to preach from, it's clearly not an individual matter but rather a case of one man (or perhaps an elder board or denomination) making that choice for an entire congregation. I do think it generally is good to let a pastor, who knows his particular church, make a choice that takes into account their needs... much as he might tailor a sermon to specific issues his church ought to address. Certainly he would be wise to choose from within the bounds of well-tested translations that the wider church finds to have merit, and to consider many other factors besides just accessibility.

I don't see it so much as a matter of personal preference but rather an issue of wise, thoughtful shepherding.
 
Let me ask one question of the AV-insistent folks here:

what do you do with a sizable number of folks in your congregation for whom English is not a first language? Do you have Brazilians, Mexicans, or Argintines in your congregation? (we do, up to a quarter of our congregation) What would you do if they wanted to come - and obviously could not handle the English of the KJV? Would you insist that they use it because "it is good for them" and "it is not that hard" and "it is proper English"? Or would you tell them if they could not hack it, they should go elsewhere (which would probably be at least an Arminian Church, if not a Health and Wealth Church)?
 
OK. I get it now. In order to have "unity" around "one" English version, I am to encourage a polyglot usage of all sorts of languages, so that people can understand the Bible when they can't understand the English version we "have" to use, instead of just using an English version that everyone could understand. That makes all sorts of sense.
 
During the 2011 anniversary year of the KJV, I did all of my devotions in it and quite a bit of reading about it. Hey, I even purchased a 12" x 17" page out of a first edition of the KJV and have it framed and on the wall in my office. Jeanette and I also have a full size (12" by 17" page) facsimile of the first edition proudly displayed in our living room (the thing weighs a TON!). It is a literary masterpiece and harkens back to an era when the majority of biblical scholars were orthodox believing scholars.

As one old enough to remember when sermons in most churches were preached from the KJV (unless you were liberal and heard the RSV), I lament the cacophony of differences in English wording that has contributed to a diminution of the practice of Bible memorization, for instance. However, unless you want to play Don Quixote, let's quit pretending that a few folks in microdenominations will change the world back to a common Bible.

The proverbial cows have left the barn and we are stuck with a multiplicity of translations. The best we can hope for is that individual congregations will probably gravitate to their own "standards" on a case by case basis. And, in our multilingual America of today, Fred raises some important points about communication in church. Our last congregation before moving from CA to IN had 45% Chinese and 35% Hispanic with most of them having only rudimentary English skills.

The other issue that I ruminate over is the one of appropriate text. Despite my basic embrace of the CT (hey, I use the ESV primarily despite my appreciation for the KJV and NKJV), I am still not convinced that an obviously corrupt manuscript (Codex Sinaiticus) should be privileged just because it is old. Sinaiticus and Vaticanus differ from one another in more than 3,000 places (3,036 if you follow Hoskier's count). Yes, they are old, but so are the 2nd and 3rd century heresies popular in some parts of Egypt, the provenance of the so-called Alexandrian texts.

Still, inside baseball arguments about text notwithstanding, the Gospel and all doctrines we count as true are clear and evident in all of the major English translations we have today. My claim is still that the best translation is the one you will actually read.
 
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Let me ask one question of the AV-insistent folks here:

what do you do with a sizable number of folks in your congregation for whom English is not a first language?

I would posit (but I could be wrong) that most of the AV-insistent folks don't have a sizable number of folks for whom English is the primary language, much less a sizable number for whom English isn't the primary language.
 
Providing bilingual Bibles would seem helpful either way. It would allow for easier understanding in the moment, when the English is too confusing, and would also help in learning English. And then the choice of translation might depend on which source texts were used for the foreign translation. (Better to be using the same texts!)
 
As another example we use the KJV in our family devotions and our children have no more a hard time understanding the "thees and thous" than they would the "yous" in another translation. Now that they have been taught what "thee" means and what "ye" means it actually makes it easier to understand what Paul or John or whoever it might be is saying in a passage because I do not have to stop my reading and explain whether the "you" is plural or singular and to whom it is referring. (This of course is information that I can only share because I may be aware of the Greek/Hebrew underlying the translation.)

Exactly - it enlightens the reader rather than obscuring the message. But yes, it does take study to fully appreciate the depth of the meaning (but not as much as you might think!)

I would posit (but I could be wrong) that most of the AV-insistent folks don't have a sizable number of folks for whom English is the primary language, much less a sizable number for whom English isn't the primary language.

Funny thing is, I look at the 'congregation; around our dinner table and see 40% of the listeners non-native speakers. Five years ago, not a word of English was spoken by them, but we used the 1599 Geneva right from the beginning. Now we have three Africans who can wade into the original of "Romeo and Juliet" without blinking - and we actually had that from early on. It is a matter of teaching, not translation. And yes, the depth of understanding of the passage is, I think, greatly improved over that of the NIV in part because of the language.
 
I love threads like this!,trying to keep it simple here though,I love the KJV,for two main reasons1.)it and the NKJV were what I grew up as a Christian with,and I thought why change? memorization is hard enough for me to try and memorize another few takes on the same verse would be very difficult for me and less fruitful 2) all the great teachers/preachers/theologians of old (Puritans,etc.) quoted from it extensively in their books/sermons,why confuse myself listening to different readings when it can a nice fit with the KJV :pilgrim:
 
I have said it before elsewhere that I loved the ESV since I first read it cover to cover in 2008. I have since made the switch to the AV & though I made up several excuse early on about the KJV being too difficult to read, I am glad I made the switch because now I am actually able to comprehend what I am reading much better (not just as it relates to the AV but to early Reformed literature as well).

I do believe parallel/bilingual Bibles are "an" answer not necessarily "the" answer to Rev. Greco's [hypothetical] question concerning congregations with large numbers of people that speak ESL. Because, dumbing things down is not typically the best way to build others up. If those who speak Spanish or Portuguese as their first language (ESL) had a parallel/bilingual Bible with the AV it would be far more edifying & unifying than some of the comments in this thread are charitable.
 
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