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Phew! A couple of thoughts:
1. Denies the real historical incarnation and resurrection of Christ and places it in some sort of "numenal history".
2. Sees Creation as God saying No to Chaos and the Fall as some sort of regression to that Chaos. Sees redemption itself in Creation and that all are both Elect and Reprobate - all are Jacob and Esau. All are Elect in Christ in some strange sense. The process of election is that we somehow understand what we are instead of pursuing the impossibility of sin.
If I've spoken in a sufficiently vague and confusing manner then I've done my best at sounding Neo-Orthodox.
As noted, not really. He said that it occurred in history but not real history. In fact, he eschewed the notion of the resurrection occurring in real human history as a pagan doctrine.Phew! A couple of thoughts:
1. Denies the real historical incarnation and resurrection of Christ and places it in some sort of "numenal history".
2. Sees Creation as God saying No to Chaos and the Fall as some sort of regression to that Chaos. Sees redemption itself in Creation and that all are both Elect and Reprobate - all are Jacob and Esau. All are Elect in Christ in some strange sense. The process of election is that we somehow understand what we are instead of pursuing the impossibility of sin.
If I've spoken in a sufficiently vague and confusing manner then I've done my best at sounding Neo-Orthodox.
But weren't there some in the neo-orthodox camp, such as Barth, that did hold to an historical incarnation and resurrection?
Specifically, where are the most stark and most foundational differences with the Reformed confessions?
And did all this occur because theologians wanted to hold on to their faith in a world they beleived did not permit things like bodily resurrections? In other words,, was this simply the best they could do to avoid a thorough-going naturalism?
Sorry for all the general questions. I am trying to understand various positions on the Scriputres, specifically the Pentateuch and it appears that the men I'm reading seem to think an historico-grammatical critique misses the nature of the text a priori. The only way this seems possible (at least where a historico-grammatical is appropriate given the text at hand) is if the events described are void of any true correlation with something actually occuring on this planet.
Thanks again for any insight your can provide.
If you go to RTS on iTunes U there are some free podcasts on the History of Philosophy and Christian Thought. Just download the one on Barth and Brunner and you'll get a snapshot.
And did all this occur because theologians wanted to hold on to their faith in a world they beleived did not permit things like bodily resurrections? In other words,, was this simply the best they could do to avoid a thorough-going naturalism?
Sorry for all the general questions. I am trying to understand various positions on the Scriputres, specifically the Pentateuch and it appears that the men I'm reading seem to think an historico-grammatical critique misses the nature of the text a priori. The only way this seems possible (at least where a historico-grammatical is appropriate given the text at hand) is if the events described are void of any true correlation with something actually occuring on this planet.
Thanks again for any insight your can provide.
I wish I could bring some details to my mind but there were some schools of philosophy that talked about a ditch between faith and reason and that it was impossible for God to enter real human history. His (and Brunner's theology) is a way to get over the ditch. If you go to RTS on iTunes U there are some free podcasts on the History of Philosophy and Christian Thought. Just download the one on Barth and Brunner and you'll get a snapshot.