tellville
Puritan Board Junior
This question has mainly come from my interactions in the Baptism thread:
My hermeneutic can be summed up in this statement: The OT is our (God's covenant people) Bible. The NT tells us how to interpret it.
But it seems like on this board, that Presbyterians follow this hermeneutic: The NT is our (God's covenant people) Bible, and the OT tells us how to interpret it.
It just seems like to me, given that for the earliest Christians their Bible would have been the OT, and what the apostles taught would have showed them how to interpret it properly. A good example would be Messianic prophecy in the Psalms or Isaiah. Without the NT, there is no way I would ever interpret many of the OT prophecy's as referring to Christ or even typologically being related to the Messiah.
Anyway, what do you guy's think?
My hermeneutic can be summed up in this statement: The OT is our (God's covenant people) Bible. The NT tells us how to interpret it.
But it seems like on this board, that Presbyterians follow this hermeneutic: The NT is our (God's covenant people) Bible, and the OT tells us how to interpret it.
It just seems like to me, given that for the earliest Christians their Bible would have been the OT, and what the apostles taught would have showed them how to interpret it properly. A good example would be Messianic prophecy in the Psalms or Isaiah. Without the NT, there is no way I would ever interpret many of the OT prophecy's as referring to Christ or even typologically being related to the Messiah.
Anyway, what do you guy's think?