Free Christian
Puritan Board Sophomore
Hello everyone again. As I was looking and searching on Bible translations I came across this explanation for the use of the word Easter in the King James. I had always thought it was wrong, but even so I will still look for things in case I am not right in what I think.
I came across this explanation.
Easter was used by the writers of the King James because it was the days of Unleavened Bread and the actual Passover had gone.
That Herod waited, not for the Passover to go, because it had already, but for the worship/festival of Astarte or Ostara/Ishtar to pass.
And as that was a pagan festival the word Easter was used as it has its origin in the name Eostre, Ostara, Astarte or Ishtar (all being the same thing).
That had they used Passover, which had already gone, it would have been incorrect.
Also that in the worship of Astarte was the baking of cakes in honour of her and that is where the hot cross bun in Easter has its origin.
They quoted from Jeremiah 7 V 18 and from 44 vs 18 & 19.
That Easter came from Astarte, Ishtar sometimes later called Eostre, as did the baking of the cakes and the use of the word was correct as at that time the festival to Astarte was upon them which Herod recognised.
Is that where it came from, the use of Easter? Could that be why it was used?
I came across this explanation.
Easter was used by the writers of the King James because it was the days of Unleavened Bread and the actual Passover had gone.
That Herod waited, not for the Passover to go, because it had already, but for the worship/festival of Astarte or Ostara/Ishtar to pass.
And as that was a pagan festival the word Easter was used as it has its origin in the name Eostre, Ostara, Astarte or Ishtar (all being the same thing).
That had they used Passover, which had already gone, it would have been incorrect.
Also that in the worship of Astarte was the baking of cakes in honour of her and that is where the hot cross bun in Easter has its origin.
They quoted from Jeremiah 7 V 18 and from 44 vs 18 & 19.
That Easter came from Astarte, Ishtar sometimes later called Eostre, as did the baking of the cakes and the use of the word was correct as at that time the festival to Astarte was upon them which Herod recognised.
Is that where it came from, the use of Easter? Could that be why it was used?