Polanus1561
Puritan Board Junior
I understand that the position is a theological one, looking at God's providence at the time of the Reformation just before the printing presses came into play and also not believing the text needs to be 'restored/reconstructed', so my question is, if HYPOthetically the TR is the text that does not have the long ending of Mark, 1 Jn 5:7 etc AND the Alexandarian/CT text is the one that DOES have all these verses, would you still stick to the TR with its 'missing' verses?