Well, the title pretty much says it all.
I've been pondering it for a while, and I just can't think of any coherent way to account for it without Adam's "federal headship" in the Covenant of Works.
I've heard many, whom I know to be Dispensationalists, refer to our sinful nature being 'hereditary' in the sense that it is passed down through procreation itself.
Not only does this seem like pure conjecture (leading me to think that 'better' dispensationalists have better answers) - but also pulls the rug out from under a perfect Christ. If He was born of a physical woman, who herself was born of flesh and was sinful - how then was Christ perfect?
Surely there has to be more on this than I have found. Any help appreciated
I've been pondering it for a while, and I just can't think of any coherent way to account for it without Adam's "federal headship" in the Covenant of Works.
I've heard many, whom I know to be Dispensationalists, refer to our sinful nature being 'hereditary' in the sense that it is passed down through procreation itself.
Not only does this seem like pure conjecture (leading me to think that 'better' dispensationalists have better answers) - but also pulls the rug out from under a perfect Christ. If He was born of a physical woman, who herself was born of flesh and was sinful - how then was Christ perfect?
Surely there has to be more on this than I have found. Any help appreciated