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Are the psalm titles of those that have them given in the RPCNA Psalter?That said, you're right, we don't sing it in our psalter (or any psalter I know of) and I don't have strong feelings one way or the other. We also don't sing the headings to the psalms, probably for similar reasons.
I think that would depend on what it means.Read it.. It's divinely inspired. I pronounce it "say-lah" personally. Read the Psalm headings aloud too as they are also divinely inspired. This is one problem with bibles that add man-inspired subtitles and such - it can sometimes be confusing to differentiate between that which is actually inspired of God and what is added by man.
By that logic, we should never pause at chapter breaks (and certainly not verse breaks). We should read books of the bible straight through, which actually can be quite profitable, but not always expedient, especially in the reading of Scripture during corporate worship.Doing so would be a distraction then, breaking up a text that's meant to be read consecutively.
Chris,Are the psalm titles of those that have them given in the RPCNA Psalter?
I wonder if the 1650 versions over the years included the psalm titles? I know the consideration of economy may be in play (if not singing them why include them?). I gave up my red split leaf Irish Psalter years ago so can't check if it has them. Both Psalter projects I've been involved with include them for those that have them as verse one as a subtitle.Chris,
The 1864 Keys Psalter had only the psalm number, e.g., "Psalm 63"
The 1889 RPCNA slight revision to the SMV had the same.
The 1911 RPCNA first true new psalter also just had the psalm number as the title.
So did the 1920 edition.
I'd have to double-check the 1950 edition.
So did the 1973 edition.
The latest 2007 "blue" psalter included the first phrase as the title in addition to the psalm number, e.g., "4A Give Answer When I Call" and a cross-reference to a New Testament passage under that. The title for say, Psalm 4, "To the chief Musician on Neginoth, A Psalm of David" does not appear in any of the above versions.
No.By that logic, we should never pause at chapter breaks (and certainly not verse breaks). We should read books of the bible straight through, which actually can be quite profitable, but not always expedient, especially in the reading of Scripture during corporate worship.
Chris,
The 1864 Keys Psalter had only the psalm number, e.g., "Psalm 63"
The 1889 RPCNA slight revision to the SMV had the same.
The 1911 RPCNA first true new psalter also just had the psalm number as the title.
So did the 1920 edition.
I'd have to double-check the 1950 edition.
So did the 1973 edition.
The latest 2007 "blue" psalter included the first phrase as the title in addition to the psalm number, e.g., "4A Give Answer When I Call" and a cross-reference to a New Testament passage under that. The title for say, Psalm 4, "To the chief Musician on Neginoth, A Psalm of David" does not appear in any of the above versions.
My TBS edition of the 1650 Scottish Metrical Psalter includes the Psalm titles (e.g. A Psalm of David). Did the 1650 not originally include them?I wonder if the 1650 versions over the years included the psalm titles? I know the consideration of economy may be in play (if not singing them why include them?). I gave up my red split leaf Irish Psalter years ago so can't check if it has them. Both Psalter projects I've been involved with include them for those that have them as verse one as a subtitle.
Looks like it did in 1650. I don't recall the later ones like I say like the red split leaf but I suspect it did as the first project I was involved with took its cues from that production.My TBS edition of the 1650 Scottish Metrical Psalter includes the Psalm titles (e.g. A Psalm of David). Did the 1650 not originally include them?
Good thoughts. I’m not yet certain though in reading I do read it aloud along with the headers.Read it.. It's divinely inspired. I pronounce it "say-lah" personally. Read the Psalm headings aloud too as they are also divinely inspired. This is one problem with bibles that add man-inspired subtitles and such - it can sometimes be confusing to differentiate between that which is actually inspired of God and what is added by man.
I wonder if the 1650 versions over the years included the psalm titles? I know the consideration of economy may be in play (if not singing them why include them?). I gave up my red split leaf Irish Psalter years ago so can't check if it has them. Both Psalter projects I've been involved with include them for those that have them as verse one as a subtitle.
Minor point of correction, Sing Psalms is produced by, I think, the Free Church of Scotland. The Free Presbyterian Church of Scotland don't use it and only use the SMV.Out of interest's sake:
Of the copies I've seen:
The Free Presbyterian Church of Scotland's 1650 in the back of Sing Psalms does not include the titles.
The FCC's split-leaf 1650 does not include the titles either.
Additionally the 1698 Brady & Tate did not include the titles.
The Irish RP's split-leaf Psalm Singing in the 21st Century did not include the titles.
The 1912 Psalter does not.
Rowland Ward's psalter does include them.
I don't think any of the psalters, including the 1650, use Selah.
My mistake, I did indeed intend the "Free Church of Scotland".Minor point of correction, Sing Psalms is produced by, I think, the Free Church of Scotland. The Free Presbyterian Church of Scotland don't use it and only use the SMV.
That's really fascinating, Bruce! Where did you come to theorize the messianic part? If that's true that's really good information for me to apply.I don't think the Selah is an aid to congregational singing the Psalm, so in our worship contexts I think it best we don't include them. But perhaps the pastor, as he introduces the Psalm, could note for the congregation those non-sung particulars (if it would be an aid to them spiritually).
I do regard the term, as well as the headings, to be inspired text, not just some later Masorete copyist's pious guesswork (i.e. vain imagination). They are indistinguishable from the rest of the text in the Hebrew. They often form part of, or the whole first Hebrew v of the Psalm, which is why our English Bibles and the Hebrew versification are often off by 1.
As to the meaning, I regard them as "Messianic pauses." That is, I don't think they are simply a "pause and reflect" presence; but summon the singer or reader or listener to the benefits of a Christocentric meditation on the words prior. In the days before Christ's arrival, such a reflection would prompt anticipation. In the days since, such a reflection may encourage deeper engagement with the substance of the Psalm, seeing in what ways it foretold what Jesus fulfilled.
I can't speak for anyone else' experience (i.e. under my ministry who has been encouraged in this pattern by my explicit exhortation); but for my part, I have yet to not be rewarded in this purpose.
I thought I read it somewhere, as in many years ago. So, disclaiming originality.... However, I've not been able to recover the source when I've tried. My reviews have left me thinking perhaps it happened to occur to me as the result of a wide variety of inputs coalescing in a single concrete conclusion. [shrug emoji goes here]That's really fascinating, Bruce! Where did you come to theorize the messianic part? If that's true that's really good information for me to apply.
As to the meaning, I regard them as "Messianic pauses." That is, I don't think they are simply a "pause and reflect" presence; but summon the singer or reader or listener to the benefits of a Christocentric meditation on the words prior. In the days before Christ's arrival, such a reflection would prompt anticipation. In the days since, such a reflection may encourage deeper engagement with the substance of the Psalm, seeing in what ways it foretold what Jesus fulfilled.
I wouldn't treat any Selah as merely referring to the last, say, no more than 10 words or so. In the case of Ps.83, the relevant context is vv1-8. In that context, it would be fitting to consider how Messiah is the ultimate answer to perennial plots against God and assaults on God's people. There is absolutely nothing "clever" about that, but it is intrinsic to the very idea and hope in the coming Savior.That is a very interesting perspective. I was curious so I tried to test it by going through the Psalms and looking at some of the instances where "Selah" occurs.
The first few I looked at were promising, e.g.,
Psalm 85:2 "Thou hast forgiven the iniquity of thy people, thou hast covered all their sin. Selah."
That could very clearly be a "Messianic pause"!
But then there are some like
Psalm 83:8 "Assur also is joined with them: they have holpen the children of Lot. Selah."
Psalm 52:3 "Thou lovest evil more than good; and lying rather than to speak righteousness. Selah."
These are much less obviously Messianic in nature, though by being clever one can find ways in which they are. But in that case the position that Selah is a "Messianic pause" seems to prove too much, because you could treat every verse that way. I find the concept interesting but I'm not sure there is obviously supporting evidence for it.
perhaps, if one actually uses the opportunity to reflect for more than a minute or two on the material, but ruminate on the passage (as a result of the specific encouragement to do so) for a week or more--as in the case of sermon preparations--the results could speak for themselves?
"There doesn't seem to be a clear pattern I can tell." I don't know what could convince you, given what your requirement seems to be. To my mind, it doesn't matter if it is "possible" to make one's way to Christ in every Psalm. My proposition is that Selah is a special direction to take this particular place so marked, and make purpose to meditate on the Messiah from it.Wouldn't that be true for any psalm? They all seem to point to Christ in some way, Selah or no Selah. If everything can be a "messianic pause", what evidence is there that Selah in particular would be a "messianic pause"?
There doesn't seem to be a clear pattern I can tell. Perhaps the most clearly messianic (2, 22, 110) don't have any Selah at all. Most psalms don't. Is that because they are so obvious they don't need them? Couldn't one make the case just as easily that a Selah is a "sovereignty pause", or a "holiness pause"? Is there any evidence for why it should be a "messianic pause" in particular?
I don't know what could convince you, given what your requirement seems to be. To my mind, it doesn't matter if it is "possible" to make one's way to Christ in every Psalm. My proposition is that Selah is a special direction to take this particular place so marked, and make purpose to meditate on the Messiah from it.
I'm not offended. We're all offering up opinions in this thread on an obscure topic. I offered a "refined" position on the pause/meditation proposal that has historically been one of several most common expert opinions. I gave some reasons for the plausibility of my view, and some anecdotal justification.Bruce, I mean no offense at all. I greatly respect you and have often benefited from your posts.