Awenwonder
Puritan Board Freshman
I had this discussion with my senior pastor recently, is the unforgivable sin actually possible? And if not, why is it referenced in the bible? Here is our case:
The unforgivable sin is defined most commonly as blasphemy against the Holy Spirit or specifically rejection of the Holy Spirit moving and working in our spirit (RC Sproul). I propose that it is not possible to reject the Holy Spirit. Isn't this one of our tenets of the reformed faith, perseverance of the saints. If God has chosen and elected us, He will work to fashion faith in us that we cannot throw off or reject. He will preserve that faith that he has given us unto our salvation. That is similar to the basis of the argument in defense of limited atonement isn't it? Basically that atonement is specific, purposeful, and personal to the elect and that it's success or effectiveness is never in question.
If an individual is not elected, chosen, the Holy Spirit is not working in them and so the Holy Spirit is not present to reject even if the individual had the power to reject it.
So either way, how could you hypothetically have a situation where an individual could commit the unforgivable sin and reject the Holy Spirit?
Those wiser in the reformed faith, please confirm or explain my error. I welcome the reproof if it is warranted.
Thanks!
The unforgivable sin is defined most commonly as blasphemy against the Holy Spirit or specifically rejection of the Holy Spirit moving and working in our spirit (RC Sproul). I propose that it is not possible to reject the Holy Spirit. Isn't this one of our tenets of the reformed faith, perseverance of the saints. If God has chosen and elected us, He will work to fashion faith in us that we cannot throw off or reject. He will preserve that faith that he has given us unto our salvation. That is similar to the basis of the argument in defense of limited atonement isn't it? Basically that atonement is specific, purposeful, and personal to the elect and that it's success or effectiveness is never in question.
If an individual is not elected, chosen, the Holy Spirit is not working in them and so the Holy Spirit is not present to reject even if the individual had the power to reject it.
So either way, how could you hypothetically have a situation where an individual could commit the unforgivable sin and reject the Holy Spirit?
Those wiser in the reformed faith, please confirm or explain my error. I welcome the reproof if it is warranted.
Thanks!