TryingToLearn
Puritan Board Freshman
Many of the Reformed writers I've read answer in the affirmative (e.g. Baxter, it seems most Puritans allowed it), but it strikes me that this is contrary to the Old Testament where only the husband can divorce. Is there really no immutable principle behind why this was so? Did all the Reformed hold the affirmative position? How ought we to think about this?
Thanks!
Thanks!