sevenzedek
Puritan Board Junior
The word translated "be" in verses 26 and 27 of Luke is the word εἶναι, eínai (Present *Infinitive *Active). I am trying understand if it would be proper to translate this to say in the context of verse 27:
Whoever does not bear his cross and follow me cannot [continue to] be my disciple.
Is this correct? If so, would this not make sense of the fact that disciples like Judas Iscariot were disciples at one time and then apostatized? They did not continue and therefore failed to be true disciples? They did not continue as Paul noted elsewhere in his epistles.
Luke 14:26-27
If any man come to me, and hate not his father, and mother, and wife, and children, and brethren, and sisters, yea, and his own life also, he cannot be my disciple. 27 And whosoever doth not bear his cross, and come after me, cannot be my disciple.
Whoever does not bear his cross and follow me cannot [continue to] be my disciple.
Is this correct? If so, would this not make sense of the fact that disciples like Judas Iscariot were disciples at one time and then apostatized? They did not continue and therefore failed to be true disciples? They did not continue as Paul noted elsewhere in his epistles.
Luke 14:26-27
If any man come to me, and hate not his father, and mother, and wife, and children, and brethren, and sisters, yea, and his own life also, he cannot be my disciple. 27 And whosoever doth not bear his cross, and come after me, cannot be my disciple.