Greetings to all, my first time posting in PB.
Pat Quick, Reformed Baptist, Male, 56, Married,
two unsaved grown boys.
Wondering about correct exegeting and interpreting 1 Cor 7
Exegetically, is it correct to interpret this as marriage is the remedy to personal lust? especially in light of verses 2 and 9?
Would you characterize this passage as a "scriptural formula" for those who can't control their lust, so you would counsel them "then you should get married". Calvin comments that it [marriage is the "remedy" for lust.] Did Calvin have a different meaning of remedy than our popular concepts of remedy / and Paul different concept of "to avoid"? If I avoid an obstacle in the road, I go around it and it doesn't affect me - I missed it. If I ask for a remedy from a Dr. for an ailment, I get medicine which is a remedy or cure. [it makes the ailment "go away"] Is marriage the "cure" for personal lust? i.e. marriage will make lust go away? In reading the commentaries, it seems that Calvin, MHenry, JFB, all say marriage is remedy for lust, but if it is, and they couldn't control themselves and only marriage to control, how would that not be a contradiction of
1Th 4:3 For this is the will of God, [even] your sanctification, that ye should abstain from fornication:
and
Rom 6:14 For sin shall not have dominion over you: for ye are not under the law, but under grace.
Thanking you in advance for your insights
Blessings, Pat
Pat Quick, Reformed Baptist, Male, 56, Married,
two unsaved grown boys.
Wondering about correct exegeting and interpreting 1 Cor 7
Exegetically, is it correct to interpret this as marriage is the remedy to personal lust? especially in light of verses 2 and 9?
Would you characterize this passage as a "scriptural formula" for those who can't control their lust, so you would counsel them "then you should get married". Calvin comments that it [marriage is the "remedy" for lust.] Did Calvin have a different meaning of remedy than our popular concepts of remedy / and Paul different concept of "to avoid"? If I avoid an obstacle in the road, I go around it and it doesn't affect me - I missed it. If I ask for a remedy from a Dr. for an ailment, I get medicine which is a remedy or cure. [it makes the ailment "go away"] Is marriage the "cure" for personal lust? i.e. marriage will make lust go away? In reading the commentaries, it seems that Calvin, MHenry, JFB, all say marriage is remedy for lust, but if it is, and they couldn't control themselves and only marriage to control, how would that not be a contradiction of
1Th 4:3 For this is the will of God, [even] your sanctification, that ye should abstain from fornication:
and
Rom 6:14 For sin shall not have dominion over you: for ye are not under the law, but under grace.
Thanking you in advance for your insights
Blessings, Pat