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What is the difference between inerrancy and infallibility, and how do different people use these words?
The way I remember learning it in a Bibliology course -
inerrancy: The Bible is without error.
infalliblity: The Bible is incapable of error.
"The Bible is inerrant if and only if it makes no false or misleading statements on any topic whatsoever. The Bible is infallible if and only if it makes no false or misleading statements on any matter of faith and practice." Stephen T Davis, The Debate about the Bible: Inerrancy versus Infallibility (Westminster Press, 1977).
This then is contrary to Davis' view above."We deny that it is possible for the Bible to be at the same time infallible and errant in its assertions. Infallibility and inerrancy may be distinguished, but not separated."
"We deny that Biblical infallibility and inerrancy are limited to spiritual, religious, or redemptive themes, exclusive of assertions in the fields of history and science."
The way I remember learning it in a Bibliology course -
inerrancy: The Bible is without error.
infalliblity: The Bible is incapable of error.
The way I remember learning it in a Bibliology course -
inerrancy: The Bible is without error.
infalliblity: The Bible is incapable of error.
agreed
While many people think of "infallibility only" people as almost-liberals, I actually thihnk infallible is a more powerful concept than inerrant. Infallible has deep apologetical implications.
It should also be pointed out that the usual description of inerrant means "without error in the original autographs." I know that some on this board would probably dispute that. Nevertheless, transcriptional errors are described this way. I agree with the definition of inerrant as without errors, and infallible as incapable of error, the latter term being far more exalted and implying the former.
I've always though of inerrant as meaning there are no errors in the text itself, whereas infallible means there are no errors in the assertions that the text makes.