clawrence9008
Puritan Board Freshman
Hey all. In my studying of historic Reformed covenant theology and paedobaptism, I have become quite convinced that it is the proper biblical understanding of God's covenantal and redemptive relationship with His people throughout history. However, there are still a lot of questions that I have with regards to the continuity between the various administrations of the covenant of grace. The one in particular I have been wrestling with is the OT saint's relationship to the Holy Spirit vs. the NT saint's relationship to the Holy Spirit. It goes without saying that OT saints must have been regenerated by the Holy Spirit, as they were equally as dead in sin in their unregenerate state as NT saints were, yet my reading in Ezekiel 36-37 makes it seem as if the regeneration/indwelling of the Holy Spirit is something that only New Covenant believers experience (see Ezek. 36:27; Ezek. 37:14; "I will put My Spirit within you"). Moreover, the NC promise is that the law will be written on the hearts of believers (Jer. 31:33; Heb. 8:10-11; cf. 2 Cor. 3:3), yet there are several passages in the OT that describe OT believers also having the law internalized within their hearts (Ps. 37:31; Ps. 40:8; Ps. 119:11 (really all of Ps. 119); Isa. 51:7). I understand that there is an outpouring of the Holy Spirit upon NC believers that saints before Pentecost did not experience (in fulfillment of Joel 2:28; Ezek. 39:29; Isa. 44:3; cf. Num. 11:29), yet the above biblical data seems to be demonstrating that OT believers did experience regeneration and indwelling of the Holy Spirit as well, if not to a much lesser degree.
Could anyone help me understand this? I would prefer if those who hold to historic Reformed covenant theology could primarily answer, as that is the position I am operating from .
Could anyone help me understand this? I would prefer if those who hold to historic Reformed covenant theology could primarily answer, as that is the position I am operating from .
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