Holy Spirit in the OT / "law on the heart" of OT believers

[clawrence9008]

Hey all. In my studying of historic Reformed covenant theology and paedobaptism, I have become quite convinced that it is the proper biblical understanding of God's covenantal and redemptive relationship with His people throughout history. However, there are still a lot of questions that I have with regards to the continuity between the various administrations of the covenant of grace. The one in particular I have been wrestling with is the OT saint's relationship to the Holy Spirit vs. the NT saint's relationship to the Holy Spirit. It goes without saying that OT saints must have been regenerated by the Holy Spirit, as they were equally as dead in sin in their unregenerate state as NT saints were, yet my reading in Ezekiel 36-37 makes it seem as if the regeneration/indwelling of the Holy Spirit is something that only New Covenant believers experience (see Ezek. 36:27; Ezek. 37:14; "I will put My Spirit within you"). Moreover, the NC promise is that the law will be written on the hearts of believers (Jer. 31:33; Heb. 8:10-11; cf. 2 Cor. 3:3), yet there are several passages in the OT that describe OT believers also having the law internalized within their hearts (Ps. 37:31; Ps. 40:8; Ps. 119:11 (really all of Ps. 119); Isa. 51:7). I understand that there is an outpouring of the Holy Spirit upon NC believers that saints before Pentecost did not experience (in fulfillment of Joel 2:28; Ezek. 39:29; Isa. 44:3; cf. Num. 11:29), yet the above biblical data seems to be demonstrating that OT believers did experience regeneration and indwelling of the Holy Spirit as well, if not to a much lesser degree.

Could anyone help me understand this? I would prefer if those who hold to historic Reformed covenant theology could primarily answer, as that is the position I am operating from .

 

[Contra_Mundum]

I suggest the way to think of the Spirit's presence and work in the OT is by degree, not by yes-or-no. I have in the past used the contrast between a NT "flood" (copious outpouring) and an "eyedropper." The Spirit must act to regenerate and sanctify, and always has done. But there is a general promise in the OT for the New Covenant age to be one of great abundance and great sharing of the Spirit's power amid the holy people; moreso than he was in action in the former ages.

A second but just as important consideration is to note where the Spirit did appear in great power in the OT. He was considered a great aid and assist to the various anointed offices in Israel, the prophets/ priests/ and kings. These offices were types of the Anointed One, Messiah/Christ, who brought all those offices together in himself. He possessed the Spirit without measure, and he has poured out his Spirit upon his people in general as an effect of his triumph.

It is in this sense that it is said: the least in the kingdom of heaven is "greater" than John the Baptist. JtB was the last OT figure, the last OT prophet, and stood in the first rank of those monumental figures (Lk.7:28). How could it be that the simplest, newest convert of the NT age comes before JtB? John was filled with the Holy Spirit from his mother's womb! But he belonged to the prior age, even as he bridged the gap between the ages. Today's convert has as his inheritance that Spiritual power poured out on Pentecost. He did not need to be selected for prophecy, or to be admired by all in the church for his time and in ages after. He obtains this gift because Christ has risen and ascended for him.

Thus, it seems plain to me that the typical OT saints, blessed by the Spirit in lesser ways, were pointed to their typological mediators as promises of Christ. And they prayed, with Moses Num.11:29, "would God that all the Lord’s people were prophets, and that the Lord would put his spirit upon them!" Which prayer has since been answered.

 

[Polanus1561]

I hold to a lesser quantity view (not so much lesser degree).

 

[clawrence9008]

I hold to a lesser quantity view (not so much lesser degree).

What is the difference between these two views?

 

[Contra_Mundum]

What is the difference between these two views?

I'm not sure there is any difference... However, I personally wouldn't want to advocate any expression that implied the Holy Spirit himself is divisible. It is his power and efficacy that saw divine self-restriction (for redemptive purposes), so far as with whom and how (and how much) he acted. The historical moment and aftermath of his outpouring was to be tied to the historic work of the Son.

 

[Polanus1561]

To be clear, I meant the New Covenant means the covenant community will be less mixed with more true regenerate believers. To be sure, the NC community now is mixed, but OT Israel cannot be even said to be mixed for you really had a handful of the remnant.