msortwell
Puritan Board Freshman
So . . . I have been struggling my way through “God’s Empowering Presence” by Gordon Fee. Two questions I have not been able to resolve for myself. And it seems necessary to understand these two things to make any sense out of his intended message.
1. Does Mr. Fee forward a veiled (or not so veiled)form of Antinomianism? He expressly states in this book that “. . . The Spirit has replaced Torah as God’s means of ‘fulfilling’ Torah.”
2. This likely necessitates answering a second question first. . . What does Mr. Fee mean when he consistently chooses to use the word “Torah” rather that being more specific?
Any insights would be appreciated. I told a friend that I would review Fee's treatment of Romans in the referenced work, but I keep stalling (having to go back to read some of the preceding text to try to understand where he's coming from). I genuinely don't want to read the whole book - not finding it to be a particularly edifying work. Still, that is what I may HAVE to do - read it all.
Can anyone help?
1. Does Mr. Fee forward a veiled (or not so veiled)form of Antinomianism? He expressly states in this book that “. . . The Spirit has replaced Torah as God’s means of ‘fulfilling’ Torah.”
2. This likely necessitates answering a second question first. . . What does Mr. Fee mean when he consistently chooses to use the word “Torah” rather that being more specific?
Any insights would be appreciated. I told a friend that I would review Fee's treatment of Romans in the referenced work, but I keep stalling (having to go back to read some of the preceding text to try to understand where he's coming from). I genuinely don't want to read the whole book - not finding it to be a particularly edifying work. Still, that is what I may HAVE to do - read it all.
Can anyone help?