ABondSlaveofChristJesus
Puritan Board Freshman
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Originally posted by WrittenFromUtopia
Do you mean like, abstaining from condemning homosexuality from the pulpit?
Originally posted by Me Died Blue
I would definitely answer yes, largely because if we do not, the command in Scripture to obey the magistrate would be meaningless. I believe that the only way we are justified in disobeying the magistrate is if their instructions would force us to sin. But if one adds that we do not even have to obey them when their restrictions go further than God's (albeit without going against them), when would obeying them apply? In other words, if the answer to your question was no, we would never have to look to the magistrate for any restriction on our actions, only look to God's Law and do anything that it allows, disregarding anything the magistrate says, hence rendering the command to obey the law of the land meaningless.
Originally posted by WrittenFromUtopia
Issues of Christian Liberty are not ones we HAVE to obey, lest we be sinning.
A Christian who is 17 doesn't HAVE to drink alcohol, against the gov't's mandates, in order to NOT be sinning.
Originally posted by Draught Horse
Originally posted by Me Died Blue
I would definitely answer yes, largely because if we do not, the command in Scripture to obey the magistrate would be meaningless. I believe that the only way we are justified in disobeying the magistrate is if their instructions would force us to sin. But if one adds that we do not even have to obey them when their restrictions go further than God's (albeit without going against them), when would obeying them apply? In other words, if the answer to your question was no, we would never have to look to the magistrate for any restriction on our actions, only look to God's Law and do anything that it allows, disregarding anything the magistrate says, hence rendering the command to obey the law of the land meaningless.
So, moonshining and bootlegging is out? You're no fun
Originally posted by Me Died Blue
I would definitely answer yes, largely because if we do not, the command in Scripture to obey the magistrate would be meaningless. I believe that the only way we are justified in disobeying the magistrate is if their instructions would force us to sin. But if one adds that we do not even have to obey them when their restrictions go further than God's (albeit without going against them), when would obeying them apply? In other words, if the answer to your question was no, we would never have to look to the magistrate for any restriction on our actions, only look to God's Law and do anything that it allows, disregarding anything the magistrate says, hence rendering the command to obey the law of the land meaningless.
Originally posted by Draught Horse
I say it doesn't. And underage drinking in the presence of a legal guardian at home is not against the law.
Originally posted by SRoper
"And underage drinking in the presence of a legal guardian at home is not against the law."
I believe that is only true in Wisconsin.
Originally posted by ABondSlaveofChristJesus
So God gives the government the authority to create morality in certain issues?
Originally posted by SRoper
"And underage drinking in the presence of a legal guardian at home is not against the law."
I believe that is only true in Wisconsin.
Originally posted by SRoper
I was confused about the Wisconsin thing. I believe I heard Wisconsin is the only state that allows children to drink with their parents in taverns. However a quick glance through the Ohio Revised Code suggests the same is true there.
Man I was decieved all those years!
Originally posted by SRoper
By the way Andrew, here is a partial answer to your inquiry:
"No underage person shall knowingly order, pay for, share the cost of, attempt to purchase, possess, or consume any beer or intoxicating liquor in any public or private place. No underage person shall knowingly be under the influence of any beer or intoxicating liquor in any public place. The prohibitions set forth in division (E)(1) of this section against an underage person knowingly possessing, consuming, or being under the influence of any beer or intoxicating liquor shall not apply if the underage person is accompanied by a parent, spouse who is not an underage person, or legal guardian, or the beer or intoxicating liquor is given by a physician in the regular line of the physician's practice or given for established religious purposes." [emphais mine]
[Edited on 22-Jul-2005 by SRoper]
Originally posted by ABondSlaveofChristJesus
Originally posted by Me Died Blue
I would definitely answer yes, largely because if we do not, the command in Scripture to obey the magistrate would be meaningless. I believe that the only way we are justified in disobeying the magistrate is if their instructions would force us to sin. But if one adds that we do not even have to obey them when their restrictions go further than God's (albeit without going against them), when would obeying them apply? In other words, if the answer to your question was no, we would never have to look to the magistrate for any restriction on our actions, only look to God's Law and do anything that it allows, disregarding anything the magistrate says, hence rendering the command to obey the law of the land meaningless.
Ok we know that drinking wine in moderation is not inherently sinful. Your saying that if the government were to outlaw the consumption of it in general it becomes sinful?
Originally posted by SRoper
"Thanks. This is helpful. Can you tell me what jurisdiction this applies to?"
-Andrew
Sorry I wasn't clear that I was continuing my previous post. That is from the Ohio Revised Code.