RamistThomist
Puritanboard Clerk
Do the Standards (or background documents) address dyotheletism?
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Is soul being used as a synonym for will? And is it saying will is a predicate of nature or person?
Is soul being used as a synonym for will? And is it saying will is a predicate of nature or person?
His reasonable human soul includes sinless will, emotions and intellect.
WCF 8.2, "with all the essential properties and common infirmities thereof... whole, perfect, and distinct... without conversion, composition, or confusion... very man."
Where there is no human will, there is no whole human nature.
But here is a very interesting question which ties in with the image of God theme in Scripture. Since Christ submitted to the plan of redemption before the world began, what was the nature of His "will" in subordination to the will of God? And with this will, was there not "reason" to accompany it? How is this related to the image of God in man?
Bumping to see if one takes a stab at your questions. I assume you asked to sharpen our minds on the will of God and please correct me if I am wrong in my assumtion.
Bumping to see if one takes a stab at your questions. I assume you asked to sharpen our minds on the will of God and please correct me if I am wrong in my assumtion.
Less concerned with will per se, but more in terms of understanding ectypal theology better, with Christ Himself as the model for the image.
WCF 8.2, "with all the essential properties and common infirmities thereof... whole, perfect, and distinct... without conversion, composition, or confusion... very man."
Where there is no human will, there is no whole human nature.
But here is a very interesting question which ties in with the image of God theme in Scripture. Since Christ submitted to the plan of redemption before the world began, what was the nature of His "will" in subordination to the will of God? And with this will, was there not "reason" to accompany it? How is this related to the image of God in man?
WCF 8.2, "with all the essential properties and common infirmities thereof... whole, perfect, and distinct... without conversion, composition, or confusion... very man."
Where there is no human will, there is no whole human nature.
But here is a very interesting question which ties in with the image of God theme in Scripture. Since Christ submitted to the plan of redemption before the world began, what was the nature of His "will" in subordination to the will of God? And with this will, was there not "reason" to accompany it? How is this related to the image of God in man?
I loved Maximus' conception of the true motion of all created things as from God and returning to Him -- I think he referenced Christ there in the garden of Gethsemane (I'm still only a little ways into the book). Not exactly in answer to the question (I don't think?) but I thought of how Christ is constantly calling us to 'follow Him', and how He leads us to the Father.
To fathom such leads us be molded into His image of God which is different than our image of God we are being molded into.
does it relate to how God the Son submitted to God the Father even before becoming a man? So Christ's human will was in some sense a 'revelation' of His divine will: His primary concern as a man was still to please the Father?
(And in being so -- it was also a revelation of the will of the Father to which He submitted.)
Our image bearing as it relates to God is not so much of the Father's relation to the Son but of the Son's relation to the Father?
Since the Logos Asarkos only had one will, which was the will of the Father and Spirit(same essence), how could he have been subject to the Father? It is like saying I am subject to my own will. A logically true statement, no doubt, but it doesn't impart much content.
To fathom such leads us be molded into His image of God which is different than our image of God we are being molded into.
What about 2 Cor. 3:18, "changed into the same image?" Other passages state "we shall be like Him."