Ben Zartman
Puritan Board Junior
Mostly to my Presbyterian friends, I ask: when I fail to baptize my children, am I thereby breaking the Covenant of Grace? The person who did not circumcise his children in the OT was breaking the Mosaic Covenant. Does the person in the NT then break the CoG when he fails to apply the sign to his children? Is not the NC unbreakable, as contrasted with the OC?
Thanks in advance--I'm trying to understand the vagaries of Presbyterian theology, and as a Baptist, I can't puzzle this one out.
Thanks in advance--I'm trying to understand the vagaries of Presbyterian theology, and as a Baptist, I can't puzzle this one out.