Taylor, I simply asked for your own interpretation of the meaning of the account. You admit a phenomological view can be taken. Why? Explain why you think it can be so to me. I really want to understand your interpretation of the passage not your conclusion about the passage.
Because my purpose is not to argue for one position or the other. To do so, therefore, would simply dilute what I am trying to argue, and that is that either position can be argued validly from Scripture, and that, hermeneutically sleaking, no one has the biblical position in this matter. I do not know why that is so difficult to accept or understand.