Eoghan
Puritan Board Senior
I was shocked when there was a discussion of 1 Corinthians for the answer to questions about the text - it is probably not part of the original text. This was followed by an explanation that a Greek scholar felt that the particular verses should not be there, it was not in the style of Paul and there was a marked shift in phrasing.
I really felt that this was an easy way to deal with some of the more problematic teachings of Paul. I had rather thought that we had a genuine N.T. text, well attested and authorative. If I am honest it reminded me of conversations I have had with Brethren. When quoting a particular text they have interupted to tell me that that text only applies to the millennium or some other period in their dispensational theology. ( I fully acknowledge that not all Brethren are dispensational)
Am I wrong? I seem to recall FF Bruce asserting that no textual corrections affected any doctrines?
I really felt that this was an easy way to deal with some of the more problematic teachings of Paul. I had rather thought that we had a genuine N.T. text, well attested and authorative. If I am honest it reminded me of conversations I have had with Brethren. When quoting a particular text they have interupted to tell me that that text only applies to the millennium or some other period in their dispensational theology. ( I fully acknowledge that not all Brethren are dispensational)
Am I wrong? I seem to recall FF Bruce asserting that no textual corrections affected any doctrines?