Afterthought
Puritan Board Senior
I've been refreshing my memory on the subject matter. There are a number of ways one can argue that recreations are not a proper activity for the Lord's day. However, Isaiah 58:13-14 is especially pertinent since it seems to speak so directly to the matter and is used as a proof text in our Standards. Some questions as I've been trying to think of objections to using this text for showing recreations are not allowed on the Lord's day.
1) How do we know that "thine own pleasure" refers to recreations? Some argue that it refers to business (I've read Lane Keister's piece on this), inherently sinful works, worldly employments, or worldly recreations ("worldly" in the sense of "worldliness;" hence, presupposing that some non-spiritual recreations are allowed)? Obviously, "thine own pleasures" seems broad enough to encompass all of these, but how do we know that it is being used in a broad manner rather than being restricted to one of these other things?
2) How do we know that the "sabbath" mentioned here refers to or applies to the moral sabbath? There were other sabbaths, and most of the chapter is on fasting, so the term "sabbath" may refer to one of the ceremonial sabbaths. So the reference might refer to a ceremonial sabbath, and it might not apply to the weekly moral sabbath (i.e., it requires further argumentation to say it applies to the weekly moral sabbath).
3) Supposing it refers or applies to the weekly moral sabbath, how is it evident that this was not part of a ceremonial way of keeping the weekly sabbath, and instead is part of the substance of the weekly moral sabbath?
1) How do we know that "thine own pleasure" refers to recreations? Some argue that it refers to business (I've read Lane Keister's piece on this), inherently sinful works, worldly employments, or worldly recreations ("worldly" in the sense of "worldliness;" hence, presupposing that some non-spiritual recreations are allowed)? Obviously, "thine own pleasures" seems broad enough to encompass all of these, but how do we know that it is being used in a broad manner rather than being restricted to one of these other things?
2) How do we know that the "sabbath" mentioned here refers to or applies to the moral sabbath? There were other sabbaths, and most of the chapter is on fasting, so the term "sabbath" may refer to one of the ceremonial sabbaths. So the reference might refer to a ceremonial sabbath, and it might not apply to the weekly moral sabbath (i.e., it requires further argumentation to say it applies to the weekly moral sabbath).
3) Supposing it refers or applies to the weekly moral sabbath, how is it evident that this was not part of a ceremonial way of keeping the weekly sabbath, and instead is part of the substance of the weekly moral sabbath?
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