timfost
Puritan Board Senior
I've been continuing my studies on the covenant. This may be a basic one.
In Heb. 8:6-7, is it proper to understand the two covenants as one covenant of grace under two administrations? The first covenant couldn't be referring to the covenant of works, correct? The second or "new covenant" is better because no longer was Christ only typified but He actually accomplished what was only promised prior to the incarnation.
Am I on the right track?
In Heb. 8:6-7, is it proper to understand the two covenants as one covenant of grace under two administrations? The first covenant couldn't be referring to the covenant of works, correct? The second or "new covenant" is better because no longer was Christ only typified but He actually accomplished what was only promised prior to the incarnation.
Am I on the right track?