ReformedWretch
Puritan Board Doctor
Is this Christ? If so, why is he called an angel in this passage?
The angel who bound Satan in Rev 20
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(of course I know myself too well to take many inflexible positions about the finer points of Revelation, such as this one)
Here's what I think: The angel is just an angel. The angels of God do the will of God; he gives them the authority and strength to accomplish their mission in his divine purposes. We see these angels repeatedly performing their various duties throughout the book.
In this case, I am reminded of the baliff in a courtroom, when the gavel comes down, and the hot-shot mafia don is found guilty as charged; yet as much power as he wields, he is handcuffed by the lowly officer of the court and marched out of the room and into a cell. The angel doesn't need to be Satan's equal or greater in might, given other factors.
The fact the Jesus binds the "strong man" of Mt 12:29, and an instructive connection can be made between these two descriptions does not mean Jesus has to be the angel of Rev. 20:1.
Here's what I think: The angel is just an angel. The angels of God do the will of God; he gives them the authority and strength to accomplish their mission in his divine purposes. We see these angels repeatedly performing their various duties throughout the book.
In this case, I am reminded of the baliff in a courtroom, when the gavel comes down, and the hot-shot mafia don is found guilty as charged; yet as much power as he wields, he is handcuffed by the lowly officer of the court and marched out of the room and into a cell. The angel doesn't need to be Satan's equal or greater in might, given other factors.
The fact the Jesus binds the "strong man" of Mt 12:29, and an instructive connection can be made between these two descriptions does not mean Jesus has to be the angel of Rev. 20:1.
ReformedWretch
Puritan Board Doctor
Thanks Bruce, makes sense. But do you believe someone like Matthew Henry would say this angel is obviously Christ (which he does) because of the the Matthew 12:29 passage?
I suspect as much, without certainty. But my feeling is that becasue the figure is not plainly dentifiable as Christ (and when it is Christ, John usually makes it obvious), identity is not what John is focused on here, but the action being performed. Because of the representational aspect of the book, you could make an argument that the angel, God's messenger, symbolizes the power of the gospel message, and the effective binding of Satan that weapon works.
So who is the angel? he is the work of God, in all its aspects--Christ's work, Spirit's work, gospel's work, etc.--in the binding of Satan.
So who is the angel? he is the work of God, in all its aspects--Christ's work, Spirit's work, gospel's work, etc.--in the binding of Satan.
ReformedWretch
Puritan Board Doctor
Ok, since we have this going...
Satan is bound in only ONE way here right? If I understand correctly he is bound from decieving the Nations, yet he still prowls around like a roaring lion seeking whom he may devour?
It was just this one "way" Satan was bound here correct?
Satan is bound in only ONE way here right? If I understand correctly he is bound from decieving the Nations, yet he still prowls around like a roaring lion seeking whom he may devour?
It was just this one "way" Satan was bound here correct?
(Mal 3:1-2) "Behold, I will send My messenger, and he shall prepare the way before Me: and the Lord, Whom ye seek, shall suddenly come to His Temple, even The Messenger of The Covenant, whom ye delight in: behold, He shall come, saith The LORD of hosts. {2} But who may abide The Day of His Coming? and who shall stand when He appeareth? for He is like a refiner's fire, and like fullers' soap:"
The same Hebrew word that is here translated "messenger" is elsewhere translated "angel" (111x vs 98x) and we know that neither John the baptizer nor Christ were ontologically "angels"... Malachi 3:1-2 w/LXX
[Edited on 1-31-2005 by VERITAS]
The same Hebrew word that is here translated "messenger" is elsewhere translated "angel" (111x vs 98x) and we know that neither John the baptizer nor Christ were ontologically "angels"... Malachi 3:1-2 w/LXX
[Edited on 1-31-2005 by VERITAS]
RamistThomist
Puritanboard Clerk
The angel is related to the meaning of the symbolism of the key to the abyss and the chain. Keys have been mentioned throughout Revelation. In Revelation 1:18: Christ holds the keys of death and hades in his hand. In chapter 3: the Holy One who has the key of David which opens and shuts. And then in Revelation 9:1-2 we read that "the fifth angel sounded his trumpet, and I saw a star that had fallen from the sky to the earth. The star was given the key to the shaft of the Abyss. When he opened the Abyss, smoke rose from it like the smoke from a gigantic furnace. The sun and sky were darkened by the smoke from the Abyss." Therefore look back to see how these terms were used earlier in Revelation.
The symbolism of the keys before this text gives the correct interpretation. The abyss refers to death and Hades - the realm which Satan is most closely associated to. Having been cast of out heaven (Revelation 12:7-9), John now sees an angel (either Christ, or an angel exercising Christ's authority) confining Satan to the realm of the dead since Satan has been cast from heaven where he had been accusing the saints. In verses 2-3 the angel "seized the dragon, that ancient serpent, who is the devil, or Satan, and bound him for a thousand years. He threw him into the Abyss, and locked and sealed it over him, to keep him from deceiving the nations anymore until the thousand years were ended. After that, he must be set free for a short time." John's point is: Satan is bound to the abyss (the realm of death and hades) for a specified time (a thousand years), for a specific purpose (so that he is prevented from deceiving the nations), until the thousand years are over. This prevention of deception does not mean total - but prevelent. Though there is some satanic deception in the nations - it is not prevailing - nor an equal match to God's power.
Robin
PS. There are other places in Scripture where Christ is depicted as an angel, btw.
The symbolism of the keys before this text gives the correct interpretation. The abyss refers to death and Hades - the realm which Satan is most closely associated to. Having been cast of out heaven (Revelation 12:7-9), John now sees an angel (either Christ, or an angel exercising Christ's authority) confining Satan to the realm of the dead since Satan has been cast from heaven where he had been accusing the saints. In verses 2-3 the angel "seized the dragon, that ancient serpent, who is the devil, or Satan, and bound him for a thousand years. He threw him into the Abyss, and locked and sealed it over him, to keep him from deceiving the nations anymore until the thousand years were ended. After that, he must be set free for a short time." John's point is: Satan is bound to the abyss (the realm of death and hades) for a specified time (a thousand years), for a specific purpose (so that he is prevented from deceiving the nations), until the thousand years are over. This prevention of deception does not mean total - but prevelent. Though there is some satanic deception in the nations - it is not prevailing - nor an equal match to God's power.
Robin
PS. There are other places in Scripture where Christ is depicted as an angel, btw.
ReformedWretch
Puritan Board Doctor
4 dollars!!
BOUGHT!
Thanks
BlackCalvinist
Puritan Board Senior
Hmmmm.... I've yet to hear a semi-convincing non-premill argument for 'bound' or 'progressive binding' (Gentry) that doesn't butcher Rev. 20.
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