clawrence9008
Puritan Board Freshman
When Paul writes in Romans 8:3-4 that Christ was sent in human form as a sin offering to condemn sin in the flesh “in order that the righteous requirement of the law might be fulfilled in us,” is he referring to Christ’s legal righteousness which is imputed to believers (justification), or does he refer to the evangelical obedience that believers can now perform seeing as they are no longer under the dominion of the law as a covenant of works (sanctification)? I could see either option:
1) Justification — this verse seems almost analogous to 2 Cor. 5:21, which obviously speaks of justification, and Paul uses legal language here (“condemned,” “righteous requirement,” etc.). See also Rom. 8:1.
2) Sanctification — the context of chs. 6 and 7 is that of sanctification, and the following verses in Romans 8 also seem to discuss sanctification. Calvin makes the argument that it does not refer to something done in us because we can never perfectly fulfill the law, which is definitely fair, but Paul also speaks of believers fulfilling the law through love later in Rom. 13:8, 10.
Any thoughts? It seems like commentators are divided on the interpretation of this passage.
1) Justification — this verse seems almost analogous to 2 Cor. 5:21, which obviously speaks of justification, and Paul uses legal language here (“condemned,” “righteous requirement,” etc.). See also Rom. 8:1.
2) Sanctification — the context of chs. 6 and 7 is that of sanctification, and the following verses in Romans 8 also seem to discuss sanctification. Calvin makes the argument that it does not refer to something done in us because we can never perfectly fulfill the law, which is definitely fair, but Paul also speaks of believers fulfilling the law through love later in Rom. 13:8, 10.
Any thoughts? It seems like commentators are divided on the interpretation of this passage.
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