CalvinandHodges
Puritan Board Junior
Greetings:
The Bible alone is the infallible means of interpreting the Scriptures is a doctrine I am most committed to in my beliefs. I have been troubled recently in a private conversation concerning the nature of predictive prophecy.
I believe that Matthew 24 is describing, in part, the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 AD. Also, in Daniel 7:19ff we understand that the Roman Empire is being discussed, but we have no direct Scriptural evidence that proves that such is the case. In other words: I cannot cross-reference a passage in Scrpture that "Matt. 24 is talking about 70 AD" or "Daniel 7:19 is referring to the Roman Empire."
We get these interpretations from outside of Scripture: i.e. Josephus, or a history book of some kind.
Is Sola Scriptura applied in a different way when it comes to predictive prophecy?
Grace,
-CH
The Bible alone is the infallible means of interpreting the Scriptures is a doctrine I am most committed to in my beliefs. I have been troubled recently in a private conversation concerning the nature of predictive prophecy.
I believe that Matthew 24 is describing, in part, the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 AD. Also, in Daniel 7:19ff we understand that the Roman Empire is being discussed, but we have no direct Scriptural evidence that proves that such is the case. In other words: I cannot cross-reference a passage in Scrpture that "Matt. 24 is talking about 70 AD" or "Daniel 7:19 is referring to the Roman Empire."
We get these interpretations from outside of Scripture: i.e. Josephus, or a history book of some kind.
Is Sola Scriptura applied in a different way when it comes to predictive prophecy?
Grace,
-CH