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Don't get me wrong, John Murray is usually a very persuasive author! But his short article trying to argue that the language of visible/invisible church is unbiblical is not very convincing at all (it does not take long to read it to realize this). I find it surprising that anyone would use it as a defense for their position, especially since Murray doesn't interact with any of the traditional biblical arguments for the distinction.Just read your paper. Very good job. I don't know if you have listened to the examination of Rev. Wilkins by the LA Presbytery (its on the AAPC web site) but he uses John Murray to bolster his position regarding the visible/invisible church. In fact his defenders used the same quotes.
Don't get me wrong, John Murray is usually a very persuasive author! But his short article trying to argue that the language of visible/invisible church is unbiblical is not very convincing at all (it does not take long to read it to realize this). I find it surprising that anyone would use it as a defense for their position, especially since Murray doesn't interact with any of the traditional biblical arguments for the distinction.
Don't get me wrong, John Murray is usually a very persuasive author! But his short article trying to argue that the language of visible/invisible church is unbiblical is not very convincing at all (it does not take long to read it to realize this). I find it surprising that anyone would use it as a defense for their position, especially since Murray doesn't interact with any of the traditional biblical arguments for the distinction.
Very interesting question. His Collected Writings doesn't say where the article came from, either.Some one can correct me if I'm mistaken, but I believe this piece was one of some papers Professor Murray had said he did not want published after his death. Could be he knew it was not ready for prime time?
Very interesting question. His Collected Writings doesn't say where the article came from, either.
Most of the articles are footnoted (is that a verb?) with where they were taken, but this article has no such footnote. The Preface explains that some were not previously published, but makes no special mention of this particular article. I suppose it may have never been intended to be published, but . . I don't know where we have any documentation of that? (I would be happy if we did, and I'd happily update my article with such information!)There should be something in the preface to the volume it is in, as I. Murray makes note of this piece in passing I think; or at least I've assumed it was this piece.
Most of the articles are footnoted (is that a verb?) with where they were taken, but this article has no such footnote. The Preface explains that some were not previously published, but makes no special mention of this particular article. I suppose it may have never been intended to be published, but . . I don't know where we have any documentation of that? (I would be happy if we did, and I'd happily update my article with such information!)
And I was hoping you'd find something showing that he had changed his mind concerning that article!Looks like I'm at least confusing a comment in the preface to volume 2. Not sure where I read the idea he was opposed to publishing his papers? In any event, if an aritcle was not footnoted as to source, that means it was from the MS and the first time it was published was in the works.
And I was hoping you'd find something showing that he had changed his mind concerning that article!
Just further proof that they don't understand the basics of Reformed ecclesiology.See especially Knox Colloquium, Barach, “Covenant and Election,” 149-156, Wilson, “Sacramental Efficacy,” 233-244, and Wilkins, “Covenant, Baptism, and Salvation,” 254-269; and Douglas Wilson, “The Church: Visible or Invisible,” in Federal Vision, 263-269.