timmopussycat
Puritan Board Junior
I seem to remember hearing more than one WHI commentator claiming that unless you are accused of being antinomian, you are "probably not" preaching the Gospel.
I don't know if this was their source (it would be mildly ironic, if so), but didn't Lloyd-Jones say something along those lines? Pointing out that it was an accusation made against Paul himself, if I remember correctly.
You are absolutely correct about Lloyd-Jones. He says at great length (Romans, Exposition of chapter 6: The New Man pp. 8-10):
"true preaching of the gospel of salvation by grace alone always leads to the possibility of this charge being brought against it. There is no better test as to whether a man is really preaching the New Testament gospel of salvation than this, that because you are saved by grace alone it does not matte what you do . . . If my preaching and my presentation of the gospel does not expose it to that misunderstanding, then it is not the gospel [that I am preaching. It is this sense] in which the doctrine of justification by faith only is a very dangerous doctrine . . . in the sense it can be misunderstood."
But the Doctor goes on to point out at greater length – the rest of the book–that our being under the reign of grace rather than under sin does not free us from our calling to put to death the sin that remains in our bodies.
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Joshua:
I have not looked at the WLC in forever. Am I correct that the "Moral law" is the 10 commandments, and not the general "mosiac law?" I will look for myself this evening.
Thanks~!
Quite right. If you review WCF 19:1-3 you will see that the Divines defined the term "moral law" as the decalogue alone.