I've heard and read expositors point out that on the cross, when Jesus cried out, "My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?" he switched from addressing God as "Father" (as he did when asking forgiveness of those who crucified him, or praying in Gethsemane) to calling him "God." Invariably, these expositors seem to conclude that this is because "Father" would not fit his relationship with God at that moment since he was being forsaken and suffering separation from God as punishment for our sin. I've interpreted the statement that way myself. But... Is that reaching too far? I agree that Jesus was suffering forsakenness, but perhaps his reason for using "God" is simply the fact that he was quoting Psalm 22, which says "God." Isn't that, rather than a reference to a change in the Father/Son relationship, a more obvious reason for the switch in language? What do you think?