Why did godly OT people marry unbelievers?

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nwink

Puritan Board Sophomore
If believers are to marry in the Lord, why did godly men in the OT, like Joseph, marry an unbeliever? Or Esther marrying Ahasuerus? (Even if they converted later, it seems the people were unbelievers at the time of marriage)
 
Because even godly men are sinners and sometimes the desires of the heart and eyes are not overruled by what they know to be right before God. As to Esther, I am not sure how much choice she had in the matter. In fact, I am not sure how much choice Joseph had either. He was given a wife by Pharaoh. To reject such a thing from the king would not have ended well for him.
 
There are also Redemptive-Historical aspects of Joseph's story that need to be appreciated, both for the situation in time, of a given story, as well as the typological significance.

In point of fact, at this instant in R-H, there is no "our father's people" whence to return and get wives for any of Jacob's sons (Haran having become a place of no-return). It's probably fair to say that Judah (whose wife's name we know) seems to have failed to take the best direction in order to obtain his wife. However, we should note that the patriarch Israel seems not to have taken initiative to get wives for his sons--but then again, neither did Isaac--and it was Rebekah's prompting that led to Jacob's departure, ostensibly to find a better wife than Esau found.

What sort of customs there may have been concerning marriage to a servant--we probably don't know. It is likely there were brothers who married thus within the "family," broadly conceived. If you look at Gen.46:10, you see it is noted (as though for emphasis) that Simeon had a Canaanitish wife or concubine, of whom was born at least one son.

In Joseph's case, he did not know exactly how the Lord would fulfill the divine promises toward him. He accepted his circumstances, and the wife that was given to him, as given him by God. We ought to think so highly of Joseph, to think that he led his wife in faith. It is not likely that he would have found a "believing wife" anywhere--that is, a woman whose God was already true, if he did not lead her to such worship himself. And given what we know of him, and that God was with him (including in marriage) to bless him, we should think he made a godly family by the grace of God.


We should also appreciate the typological foreshadowing of Joseph's situation. He was "despised and rejected" by his own, who did not receive him. This is Stephen's point in his "defense," Act.7. Joseph becomes savior of the Gentiles frankly as a result. He takes a Gentile bride as a result. The good that results makes him forget his suffering and even his father's house (Manasseh); and he obtains great fruit therein (Ephraim); see Gen.41:50-52. All this points very significantly to the ultimate Savior.


Each occasion in the Bible needs to be taken on its own, judged by the best criteria, not the least-common-denominator for all men everywhere at all times. There are men who married very badly. There were those who disobeyed clear commands not to marry certain people (Samson comes to mind). We are able to pass those judgments by the applicable criteria and the results the writers of Scripture highlight. We need to be wary of judging persons in the Bible on peculiar expectations that fit into later conditions; just as we do not expect ourselves to be measured by every previously laid-down standard.
 
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