If I'm understanding, you mean the writer said the 1540 was only on Paul's epistles and the Matthew didn't appear in print until 62 years later, correct?I read one patristic scholar who believed a 1540 something edition of the homilies on the Pauline epistles was the first printed work of Chrysostom in Greek. His list of known documents didn't include any subsequent editions of the Matthew homilies until the opera omnia of 1602.