I will respond when I get the time but thought you may be interested in this:
What should we sing? Psalm 8 or Hebrews 2? « Thomas Goodwin
What should we sing? Psalm 8 or Hebrews 2? « Thomas Goodwin
Conclusions:
Hebrews 2 makes clear what is somewhat unclear in Psalm 8. The “But we see Jesus” (v. 9) is crucial, as I have argued. In my opinion, while it is fine to sing Psalm 8, it is even better to sing Hebrews 2!!!
Why? Because Hebrews 2 makes clear what Psalm 8 leaves unclear. Man has failed, but Christ has prevailed. That is the thrust of redemptive history and I believe we ought to sing of Christ’s victory (leading many sons to glory, Heb. 2:10). Psalm 8 just doesn’t carry the same redemptive weight as Hebrews 2.
Psalm 8 becomes more glorious in Hebrews 2 because it is set in contrast to Christ. So, in singing Hebrews 2, we are not only singing a Psalm (a glorious thing), but we are also singing explicitly about Jesus (an even more glorious thing).
The NT clarifies the old. We’ve all heard Augustine’s famous quote: “The New is in the Old concealed, the Old is in the New revealed.” So, EP’s will argue that we can sing the Psalms with that understanding. But that still misses the point. The New adds content that is not present in the Psalms, such as the name “Jesus” (a loaded name, Matt. 1:21). We are to confess the name of Jesus with our lips and we do this in song as we do in prayer, preaching, and reading. Why is it that singing is so sacred that we cannot sing the name “Jesus”?
Hence, when Christ declares in v. 12 … “I will declare your name to my brothers;”, he is speaking about the full revelation of God’s name and that is not limited to actual names (e.g. Jesus, Jehovah Tsidkenu, Yahweh, etc.), but all that encompasses the name. Declaring God’s name is declaring Christ’s redemptive work (see Acts 4:12). And so there are indicatives in the NT that are much clearer than in the Old (e.g. “in love he predestined us … chosen in him”, etc., etc.) Can we even compare a single Psalm with Ephesians 1? But that is what Christ does, he sings Eph. 1 - “in the presence of the congregation I will sing your praises” (Heb 2:12b). Does Christ have the liberty to sing God’s name in its full eschatological significance? Can Christ sing “blessed be the Father of the Lord Jesus Christ”? If so, then we, by virtue of our union with him, are also free to sing those words!
So, in answer to my question in the title, we should sing both! But Heb. 2 is better, just as Christ is better than the angels, David, Moses, and Aaron!!!
Hebrews 2 makes clear what is somewhat unclear in Psalm 8. The “But we see Jesus” (v. 9) is crucial, as I have argued. In my opinion, while it is fine to sing Psalm 8, it is even better to sing Hebrews 2!!!
Why? Because Hebrews 2 makes clear what Psalm 8 leaves unclear. Man has failed, but Christ has prevailed. That is the thrust of redemptive history and I believe we ought to sing of Christ’s victory (leading many sons to glory, Heb. 2:10). Psalm 8 just doesn’t carry the same redemptive weight as Hebrews 2.
Psalm 8 becomes more glorious in Hebrews 2 because it is set in contrast to Christ. So, in singing Hebrews 2, we are not only singing a Psalm (a glorious thing), but we are also singing explicitly about Jesus (an even more glorious thing).
The NT clarifies the old. We’ve all heard Augustine’s famous quote: “The New is in the Old concealed, the Old is in the New revealed.” So, EP’s will argue that we can sing the Psalms with that understanding. But that still misses the point. The New adds content that is not present in the Psalms, such as the name “Jesus” (a loaded name, Matt. 1:21). We are to confess the name of Jesus with our lips and we do this in song as we do in prayer, preaching, and reading. Why is it that singing is so sacred that we cannot sing the name “Jesus”?
Hence, when Christ declares in v. 12 … “I will declare your name to my brothers;”, he is speaking about the full revelation of God’s name and that is not limited to actual names (e.g. Jesus, Jehovah Tsidkenu, Yahweh, etc.), but all that encompasses the name. Declaring God’s name is declaring Christ’s redemptive work (see Acts 4:12). And so there are indicatives in the NT that are much clearer than in the Old (e.g. “in love he predestined us … chosen in him”, etc., etc.) Can we even compare a single Psalm with Ephesians 1? But that is what Christ does, he sings Eph. 1 - “in the presence of the congregation I will sing your praises” (Heb 2:12b). Does Christ have the liberty to sing God’s name in its full eschatological significance? Can Christ sing “blessed be the Father of the Lord Jesus Christ”? If so, then we, by virtue of our union with him, are also free to sing those words!
So, in answer to my question in the title, we should sing both! But Heb. 2 is better, just as Christ is better than the angels, David, Moses, and Aaron!!!
