What makes a lawful marriage in God's eyes?

[Jie-Huli]

Originally posted by Scott Bushey
Pro 21:4 An high look, and a proud heart, and the plowing of the wicked, is sin.

Charles Bridges writes:

How can the plowing of the soil, in itself a duty, become a sin? The motive determines the act. The most natural actions are inculcated for Christian ends. They become therefore moral actions, good or bad according to their own motives. The man who plows the soil, acknowledging God in his work, and seeking his strength and blessing, does it acceptably to the glory of God. It is essentially a religious action. But the wicked who does the same work, without regard to God for want of a godly end, his plowing is sin.

The substance of his act is good. But the corrupt principle defiles the very best actions.

If the fountain head be bitter how can the waters be pure? (the unregenerate) Whether he prays or neglects to pray, it is an abomination.

Proverbs
Charles Bridges
Pg 368

I understand your meaning, and I agree. Even the things the unregenerate do which are lawful in themselves are surely not pleasing to God, insofar as all the motives of unregenerate man's heart are wicked and vile.

Still, it would seem clear that the Scriptures regard marriages of individuals who were married before conversion as lawful marriages, and do not view them as having lived in fornication until their conversion. So it would seem that Biblially lawful marriage may take place prior to conversion to Christ, notwithstanding the fact that marriage in its fulness is only found among Christians.

Just a quick follow-up question for anyone on the board who might be pleased to answer:

I believer that almost everyone here (including me) would regard any sort of intimate relations before a marriage ceremony to be fornication. Yet if the marriage ceremony itself is not a religious institution, and if there are few Biblical regulations defining what such a marriage ceremony should entail, what evidence can we use to refute those who say that it is the first act of physical joining itself which makes a man and a woman Biblically married?

Blessings,

Jie-Huli

 

[LadyFlynt]

Originally posted by trevorjohnson
If marriage was held to be part of civil law due to being a creation ordinance - this certainly also calls for civil fines for sabbath breaking and the civil sword for sabbth breakers. Is my logic consistent here?

They had fines for sabbath breaking as well.

 

[Civbert]

Originally posted by LadyFlynt
No, it was because they held it as a creation order and thus civil....

Would you give some more explanation of what makes it a "creation order"? I'm suspicious of the authority of the State to regulate and license marriage, which I've always considered a Church function. This is very interesting to me.

 

[Scott Bushey]

Gen 2:21 And the LORD God caused a deep sleep to fall upon Adam, and he slept: and he took one of his ribs, and closed up the flesh instead thereof;
Gen 2:22 And the rib, which the LORD God had taken from man, made he a woman, and brought her unto the man.
Gen 2:23 And Adam said, This is now bone of my bones, and flesh of my flesh: she shall be called Woman, because she was taken out of Man.
Gen 2:24 Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh.