Mr. Bultitude
Puritan Board Freshman
In a former thread, I asked:
I got a good response:
So the ceremonial law was temporary, dealt with ceremonial cleanliness, and was a shadow of what was to come in Christ, and was done away with when the reality appeared and fulfilled all righteousness and accomplished our permanent cleansing. The New Testament regulations are permanent, have nothing to do with ceremonial cleanliness, and guide our worship of the already-appeared risen Christ. Is that all a fair summary?
If so, what still confuses me a bit is the relation of these regulations to "the law." Is it all then subsumed under moral law, or is it another thing altogether? If it's a part of the moral law, from which of the Ten Commandments does it follow?
Would it be proper to say that New Testament regulations about church government and proper worship constitute a "new ceremonial law"?
I got a good response:
No. Ceremonial laws were preparatory or typological. They dealt with how a believer maintains ceremonial cleanliness. This notion pointed beyond itself but there are a number of dietary, clothing, grooming, and physical statutes that an OC Jew had to honor. They were temporary until the fulfillment of the New Covenant when the substance, Christ, came to usher in a Kingdom where the wall of division (in large part made by the ceremonial laws) was torn down. Even the entire Temple or Sanctuary was typological as Moses was shown a copy of the heavenly sanctuary to which we now have access through Christ.
So the ceremonial law was temporary, dealt with ceremonial cleanliness, and was a shadow of what was to come in Christ, and was done away with when the reality appeared and fulfilled all righteousness and accomplished our permanent cleansing. The New Testament regulations are permanent, have nothing to do with ceremonial cleanliness, and guide our worship of the already-appeared risen Christ. Is that all a fair summary?
If so, what still confuses me a bit is the relation of these regulations to "the law." Is it all then subsumed under moral law, or is it another thing altogether? If it's a part of the moral law, from which of the Ten Commandments does it follow?