I have been discussing Romans 1:16 with a freewill Baptist pastor, whose understanding on what Paul meant was that the Gospel when preached has the very power of God behind it to have lost sinners respond/produces faith in them, and saves them.
He ties this into Romans 10:17 also.
What would be an appropriate reply to his understanding on this issue?
He ties this into Romans 10:17 also.
What would be an appropriate reply to his understanding on this issue?