Tom Servo
Puritan Board Freshman
Hi, all. I'm working through some ideas on the two wills of God as part of a Sunday School class on "The Pleasures of God" by John Piper. In that book is his much-discussed article/chapter "Are There Two Wills In God? Divine Election and God's Desire For All To Be Saved"
This article has been discussed before (here, here and here). While it seems that most people agree (more or less) with the distinctions between God's secret and revealed will, or Gis volitional will and moral will, it appears that some have a disagreement with John Piper (and others) over the nature of God's desires. John Piper argues that there are many instances in which God does desire something while in another sense he does not desire it. Others argue that it's incorrect to attach any sort of sense of "desire" to God's moral, revealed will.
Previous threads on the subject have bounced around to many topics, so I thought I might just put it this way, using Ex. 4:21-23:
We clearly see here God's secret will (that Pharaoh would not let the Israelites go, so that He could glorify Himself by showing his power over Egypt), and we see God's moral standards for Pharaoh (that Pharaoh should let the Israelites go). Is it correct, then, to say that in one sense God desired that Pharaoh should let the Israelites go, while in another sense He desired that Pharaoh should not let the Israelites go?
This article has been discussed before (here, here and here). While it seems that most people agree (more or less) with the distinctions between God's secret and revealed will, or Gis volitional will and moral will, it appears that some have a disagreement with John Piper (and others) over the nature of God's desires. John Piper argues that there are many instances in which God does desire something while in another sense he does not desire it. Others argue that it's incorrect to attach any sort of sense of "desire" to God's moral, revealed will.
Previous threads on the subject have bounced around to many topics, so I thought I might just put it this way, using Ex. 4:21-23:
And the LORD said to Moses, “When you go back to Egypt, see that you do before Pharaoh all the miracles that I have put in your power. But I will harden his heart, so that he will not let the people go. Then you shall say to Pharaoh, ‘Thus says the LORD, Israel is my firstborn son, and I say to you, “Let my son go that he may serve me.” If you refuse to let him go, behold, I will kill your firstborn son.’”
We clearly see here God's secret will (that Pharaoh would not let the Israelites go, so that He could glorify Himself by showing his power over Egypt), and we see God's moral standards for Pharaoh (that Pharaoh should let the Israelites go). Is it correct, then, to say that in one sense God desired that Pharaoh should let the Israelites go, while in another sense He desired that Pharaoh should not let the Israelites go?