And if it can be proven that the NT authors did quote from both, then it is also proved that the Divines did not have in view the TR when they wrote 1:8? Am I on the right track?
If NT authors did quote from both, and by all reasonable criteria they did, the burden of proof would be on the contrarian; i.e. that the contrarians would have to prove conclusively that the Divines did not have this view.
Because if the Divines held to what the Church has always taught, they couldn't have meant that God's Word, kept pure in all ages, was written down specifically and exclusively in one text.
Since some people here are spending so much time interpreting every jot and tittle of WCF 1.8, perhaps I can ask at this time if they expect all Elder candidates of the PCA, OPC etc.. to declare exceptions if they believe parts of the OT e.g. Daniel were written in Aramaic and not Hebrew.
For any of the 23 people who voted yes in the poll, may I ask if any of you think Elders who believe Daniel was written and inspired in Aramaic are in violation of their vows?“The Old Testament in Hebrew (which was the native language of the people of God of old), and the New Testament in Greek (which, at the time of the writing of it, was most generally known to the nations), being immediately inspired by God, and, by His singular care and providence, kept pure in all ages, are therefore authentical; so as, in all controversies of religion, the Church is finally to appeal unto them.”
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In other words, Turretin can claim that the apostles did, on occasion, quote from the LXX, but this does not mean that they allowed it to be an authentic version or translation of scripture en masse. They used it when it reflected the true and authentic scripture.
Does that count? What more will you be satisfied with than to show that than 99% of orthodox scholars agree with what you just "largely agree"d with?I am open to being shown some place where the NT penmen "quoted" from a Greek "text." As you make your case to depend on it, you bear the burden of showing it.