clawrence9008
Puritan Board Freshman
In thinking on the nature of the visible/invisible church in the Covenant of Grace today, I had a question that I would like help clarifying. In Genesis 17:7ff, where circumcision is instituted as the sign and seal of God’s covenant (cf. Rom. 4:11), we see that Abraham, his offspring, and all of the male members of his household were to be circumcised. We read at the end of the chapter of Ishmael being circumcised (Gen. 17:23-26), thus presumably being brought into the external administration of the covenant (the “visible” church). However, God makes it clear to Abraham that the covenant He established will be established with Isaac, not with Ishmael (Gen. 17:19, 21). I’m having a little bit of a difficult time reconciling these two things. Is it that both Ishmael and Isaac were brought into the external administration of the covenant of grace, but only Isaac would truly inherit the blessings of it, having been circumcised in heart while Ishmael, who was merely circumcised in the flesh, was cast out (Gen. 21:9-10; cf. Gal. 4:29-30)? This makes some sense to me, but I want to make sure my thinking on this is accurate.
(If this would be a better question for the CT forum, please move it — I just wanted a paedobaptist perspective on this considering that is the position I hold to.)
(If this would be a better question for the CT forum, please move it — I just wanted a paedobaptist perspective on this considering that is the position I hold to.)