Not trying to derail the thread here, but when you say Jesus came as in our corrupted flesh, was He not though not corrupted/tainted by the fall, via the Virgin Birth, so was human, but not sin natured as all others of us have been born as since Adam?CMM,
Your position could still stand upon the truth, but the use to which you are putting Eph.5:9 is spurious.
We're not free to apply Paul's use of his term "all" beyond the scope of his discourse. Does Paul have in mind the kind of universal inclusion (by his use of "all") that reaches backward and forward, from the primordial Garden into the future state? You have to interpret his meaning within his audience' frame of reference.
I'm not convinced that what Paul intends to teach here is that the Spirit--from all and to all eternity--is the sole active energetic producer indwelling all creation for goodness, righteousness, and truth (for surely, this even further totalizes the expression; why stop with mankind?). If so, we seem to be heading for panenthiesm.
Contrasted in the passage are the "unfruitful works of darkness," v11, with the fruit of v9. God's people are to "walk as children of light," v8, recognizing that such conversation is in any/every/all aspect of their experience as believers an effect of God in his light (by his Spirit). Another gloss for the word "all" in the verse could well be, "the fruit of the Spirit consists ONLY of goodness righteousness and truth," "all" here being adjectival of the entirety of that which he produces, i.e. "nothing but."
Consider: the angels are righteous, produce good, speak truth, and are not Spirit-indwelt. The simple creation is (was made) good, animals behave themselves, but none is indwelt. Objective fact is truth, but it is not Spirit and divine.
What would be the effect of a Spirit-indwelt, unfallen Adam? What is the gain? What is he able to do that is not possible if he is not under the direction of the Spirit? Is this the claim: that the indwelling of Christ proves that Adam was also (prior to sinning) indwelt by the Spirit? That would be an invalid conclusion, because Christ came "in the likeness of sinful flesh," Rom.8:3.
Jesus acting (in one sense) in dependence upon the Spirit reflects the coming-back of man under the reign of God--as Israel, rebelled under Saul/man, came back under God's reign through David. The Spirit's generative act in Mary's womb means that there was never an instant in Jesus' life, clothed as he was in our corrupt flesh, when the life-giving Spirit was not answering and overcoming that corruption. Indwelling was required for Christ from conception to overthrow the works of the devil. It still comes through as a post-fall condition.