Use of LORD or Lord in 1 Kings 22:7

[ProtestantBankie]

Edit: Apologies the heading should be "Use of LORD or Lord in 1 Kings 22:6

Friends perhaps you could help a Non-Hebrew scholar with no background of Textual Criticism out.

I was reading the book of 1 Kings and have been struck by the fact that TWO Bible Commentators comment on this verse with it written differently from how it reads in the King James Version of the Bible.

"Then the king of Israel gathered the prophets together, about four hundred men, and said unto them, Shall I go against Ramothgilead to battle, or shall I forbear? And they said, Go up; for the Lord shall deliver it into the hand of the king." (22:6)

But Matthew Henry and Matthew Poole both have the verse written as

"Then the king of Israel gathered the prophets together, about four hundred men, and said unto them, Shall I go against Ramothgilead to battle, or shall I forbear? And they said, Go up; for the LORD shall deliver it into the hand of the king." (1 Kings 22:6, as printed in Matthew Henry and Matthew Poole commentaries).

I was of the view initially that this may have been caused by a defect in the 1611 printed edition, but even the 1611 follows the same use of Lord (adonai rather than Jehovah).

"Then the king of Israel gathered the prophets together about foure hundred men, and said vnto them, Shall I goe against Ramoth Gilead to battell, or shall I forbeare? And they said, Goe vp, for the Lord shall deliuer it into the hand of the king." (KJV 1611)

Why is that the commentators have read LORD rather than Lord?

My Bible software says the word is definitely the Hebrew word Adonay and not Jehovah.

 

[Guido's Brother]

According to Biblia Hebraica Stuttgartensia (a standard Hebrew OT with text critical apparatus), many Hebrew manuscripts do have Yahweh at that place in 1 Kings 22:6. in my opinion, this is not a significant textual issue. It does not affect the meaning of the text. It's clear that it's referring to God.