Originally posted by Me Died Blue
I would also ask in what sense Christ can be said to become sanctified.

Is not sanctification a process redeemed sinners undergo?
Originally posted by Me Died Blue
I would also ask in what sense Christ can be said to become sanctified.
Originally posted by Me Died Blue
I would also ask in what sense Christ can be said to become sanctified.
Originally posted by Martin Marprelate
Originally posted by Me Died Blue
I would also ask in what sense Christ can be said to become sanctified.
Very little time to reply at present, but might I refer you to John 3:19?
Blessings,
Martin
Mike,Originally posted by Mocha
Again, I don't think you can use Mal. 4:5-6 to prove your point.
Mike
Originally posted by Martin Marprelate
Originally posted by Me Died Blue
I would also ask in what sense Christ can be said to become sanctified.
Very little time to reply at present, but might I refer you to John 3:19?
Blessings,
Martin
Originally posted by Me Died Blue
Originally posted by Martin Marprelate
Originally posted by Me Died Blue
I would also ask in what sense Christ can be said to become sanctified.
Very little time to reply at present, but might I refer you to John 3:19?
Blessings,
Martin
John 3:19 (ESV) states "And this is the judgment: the light has come into the world, and people loved the darkness rather than the light because their deeds were evil."
Perhaps I'm missing something, but I honestly do not see how that applies to the notion of Jesus somehow becoming sanctified.
Better indeed, because it speaks of the love that comes with the New Birth. 'For in Christ Jesus neither circumcision nor uncircumcision avails anything, but faith working through love' (Gal 5:6 ).
Martin
Martin,
I don't know if you realize how your interpretations reinforce to me how cold Calvinism is without Covenant theology.
What does the prophet mean when he states that the hearts of the fathers will be turned to their children and children to fathers as a promise in the Day of the Lord?
You seem to delight in any idea that would mean our children are no different than the children of pagans. It seems you have to remain coldly rational to be consistent and avoid any delight that God gives us in the promises He made to the OT saints regarding their children.
It is not. It is the truth, the wonder and the glory of the Gospel. Christ died for the ungodly. Praise His name!It is just so dissonant with the testimony of the OT saints.
Yes, I realize you do not see it as cold. I said that I viewed it as cold and not because I hate love and the New Birth. I stated that I view your theology as cold and dissonant but I did not expect it to sway your view.Originally posted by Martin Marprelate
Better indeed, because it speaks of the love that comes with the New Birth. 'For in Christ Jesus neither circumcision nor uncircumcision avails anything, but faith working through love' (Gal 5:6 ).
Martin
Martin,
I don't know if you realize how your interpretations reinforce to me how cold Calvinism is without Covenant theology.
Rich, I'm sorry that you find love and the New Birth leave you cold, but that is your problem.
What does the prophet mean when he states that the hearts of the fathers will be turned to their children and children to fathers as a promise in the Day of the Lord?
Precisely what he says, but it has nothing to do with circumcision or baptism unless you decide to read it in.
You seem to delight in any idea that would mean our children are no different than the children of pagans. It seems you have to remain coldly rational to be consistent and avoid any delight that God gives us in the promises He made to the OT saints regarding their children.
The glory of the Gospel is that 'Christ died for the ungodly' and that He came 'Not to call the righteous but sinners to repntance,' If you have young children, I do hope for their sakes that they are ungodly sinners, because they're the only people that Christ has anything to do with.
'And I say to you that many will come from the east and west and sit down with Abraham, Isaac and Jacob in the kingdom of heaven, but the sons of the kingdom will be cast out into outer darkness. There will be weeping and gnashing of teeth' (Matt 8:11-12 ).
It is not. It is the truth, the wonder and the glory of the Gospel. Christ died for the ungodly. Praise His name!It is just so dissonant with the testimony of the OT saints.
Martin
Originally posted by pastorway
John 17:19
And for their sakes I sanctify Myself, that they also may be sanctified by the truth.
Sancitification is not always used as if the person being "sanctified" is in need of salvation. It means other things too, even as the verse in 1 Cor 7:14 proves.
[Edited on 12-29-05 by pastorway]
Originally posted by Contra_Mundum
Sure, Mal. 4:5-6 is speaking of John the Baptist. That's not the issue. What do the words mean? Why are they there? It's as if we are picking out the term "Elijah" and the rest of the words are meaningless? Why be satisfied with the excessively general interpretation: "He's calling Israel back to God"? There is more to it than that...
When Elijah preaches, and cries out for people to get ready to meet on the great and terrible day of the Lord what happens? Verse 6: "And he will turn the hearts of fathers to their children and the hearts of children to their fathers, lest I come and smite the land with a curse."
His aim is to spare people from being cursed. That's the mercy we saw in verse 5. But to spare people from being cursed people must be changed. Specifically, it it says their hearts must be changed. And even more specifically it says that the disposition of the heart toward fathers and children must be changed.
Some take this verse to refer to the fathers Abraham Isaac and Jacob, so that the meaning is simply this"”that the people will return to the faith of the fathers. But the problem with this is that it says that Elijah will also turn the fathers hearts toward the children. It would be unlikely that God would speak of Elijah changing the hearts of Abraham Isaac and Jacob. So I take it in its simpler sense: ordinary living fathers and ordinary living children will have their hearts changed toward each other.(Piper's Sermon)
Do not think that I came to bring peace on earth. I did not come to bring peace but a sword. For I have come to "˜set a man against his father, a daughter against her mother, and a daughter-in-law against her mother-in-law´; and "˜a man´s enemies will be those of his own household.´
Originally posted by pastorway
I guess Jesus missed the covenantal outworking turning hearts within the family when He stated emphatically:
Do not think that I came to bring peace on earth. I did not come to bring peace but a sword. For I have come to "˜set a man against his father, a daughter against her mother, and a daughter-in-law against her mother-in-law´; and "˜a man´s enemies will be those of his own household.´
Now THAT is cold! But that is truth.
All the hyperbole aside, and all the false allegations about how certian people here view chiuldren and families, we have to honestly admit that there is no promise given in Scripture whereby we can say that God is BOUND to save the children of believers. Election is not based upon or influenced by your physical lineage. That is exactly why the physical descendents of Abraham are not the children of promise!
Phillip
You keep trying to convince me that because Christ's ministry is "better" or "more perfect" that children are somehow an inherent imperfection in the Old Covenant.
BUT I also believe the promises to a father and his children were improved as well. When a shoot is grafted into a tree it begins to generate and branch out from the moment it is grafted in and receives life. The New Covenant is not merely more excellent because new shoots are being grafted in much more (and from more nations) than before but also because the shoots that are grafted are more productive.
It is not an EITHER OR but it is BOTH AND. I agree that the Covenant has been improved as every man and woman receives the Spirit, the Gospel spreads from Jew to God-fearer to Samaritan to Gentile, AND fathers and their children are drawn closer together and apostasy occurs with less regularity than in the old covenant so that we can rejoice at the blessing of seeing our grandchildren calling on the name of the Lord.
What is remarkable about this discussion is that I would challenge any credo-Baptist to use the idea expressed to any man whose 18 year old son has just spit in his face and told him that he hates God. Minister to him with the idea that "After all, the New Covenant is a better Covenant. Your son's apostasy is not a curse at all. It is an improvement in the Covenant that your son now hates God."
God forbid any man comfort a grieving father with such words and yet, in theological musings divorced from their practical implications, we can talk about children as if they were always some sort of disposable element of the Covenant.
You seem to be down playing the fact that the New Covenant administration is different in "kind". It is different and better in "kind" primarily because it cannot be broken, because all within it know God in a salvific sense and want to (and can) live for him. I just can't see how unbeievers can be part of the New Covenant administration.
Why does it have to be either/or? We have established at least something of the grammatical/linguistic meaning of the text (thank you pastor Piper!), now move on to "why". Why does God say such things? and why here? Could this have anything to do with other passages that speak of fathers and sons? Gen. 17:7? Ex. 2:24? 1 Ki. 18:36-37? Is. 59:15b-21(!) Hos. 11:1?Originally posted by Mocha
Originally posted by Contra_Mundum
Sure, Mal. 4:5-6 is speaking of John the Baptist. That's not the issue. What do the words mean? Why are they there? It's as if we are picking out the term "Elijah" and the rest of the words are meaningless? Why be satisfied with the excessively general interpretation: "He's calling Israel back to God"? There is more to it than that...
Here's John Piper's take on Mal. 4:5-6. he says:
When Elijah preaches, and cries out for people to get ready to meet on the great and terrible day of the Lord what happens? Verse 6: "And he will turn the hearts of fathers to their children and the hearts of children to their fathers, lest I come and smite the land with a curse."
His aim is to spare people from being cursed. That's the mercy we saw in verse 5. But to spare people from being cursed people must be changed. Specifically, it it says their hearts must be changed. And even more specifically it says that the disposition of the heart toward fathers and children must be changed.
Some take this verse to refer to the fathers Abraham Isaac and Jacob, so that the meaning is simply this"”that the people will return to the faith of the fathers. But the problem with this is that it says that Elijah will also turn the fathers hearts toward the children. It would be unlikely that God would speak of Elijah changing the hearts of Abraham Isaac and Jacob. So I take it in its simpler sense: ordinary living fathers and ordinary living children will have their hearts changed toward each other.(Piper's Sermon)
If I understand John Piper correctly, he is saying that God will change the hearts of fathers and children.
Can you show me where the passage suggests a covenantal sense rather than a salvific one?
Mike
[Edited on 12-29-2005 by Mocha]
You miss my point. I'm not dealing with how a paedobaptist would comfort the man. I'm trying to show that the idea that a man's child is outside the Covenant brings no joy to any man. When even a Baptist's child turns his back on the faith it is a terribly sad thing. Reformed credo-Baptists mark the idea that "Ah well God never Elected him" as some sort of indifferent thing confined to the secret counsel of God that should not affect the heart of a believer. According to the credo-Baptist theology, a true believer should mark the son rejecting the faith with indifference since the child was never in the Covenant to begin with. To grieve over such an event would be inconsistent with one's confession. I've just never met a man who meets such an event with anything but sorrow because who doesn't want the blessing of sharing the love of God with your flesh and blood? There are those who talk around this very real longing (which is a very Biblical longing) with dispassion.First of all, if a son tells his Christian father he hates God, how will telling him that he's in the covenant make any difference? He needs to be told that he is not right with God and that he needs to run to Christ for forgiveness.What is remarkable about this discussion is that I would challenge any credo-Baptist to use the idea expressed to any man whose 18 year old son has just spit in his face and told him that he hates God. Minister to him with the idea that "After all, the New Covenant is a better Covenant. Your son's apostasy is not a curse at all. It is an improvement in the Covenant that your son now hates God."
God forbid any man comfort a grieving father with such words and yet, in theological musings divorced from their practical implications, we can talk about children as if they were always some sort of disposable element of the Covenant.
I respect every man's right to come to his own conclusions based on his own Biblical convictions. I find it very cold as do many in the OPC and PCA that I talk to about it. I was talking to Dr. Horton about this over lunch one time and he told me a story of a Professor at Westminster (whose name escapes me) that had special sessions with students to talk issues of Covenant. At one point a Reformed Baptist student made comments akin to those commonly made in this thread and others and he just began to weep.Rich, I don't think the credo view is as cold as you're making it out to be.
I didn't say that God is BOUND to save the children of believers. If you can show me where I did then I will recant.Originally posted by pastorway
I guess Jesus missed the covenantal outworking turning hearts within the family when He stated emphatically:
Do not think that I came to bring peace on earth. I did not come to bring peace but a sword. For I have come to "˜set a man against his father, a daughter against her mother, and a daughter-in-law against her mother-in-law´; and "˜a man´s enemies will be those of his own household.´
Now THAT is cold! But that is truth.
All the hyperbole aside, and all the false allegations about how certian people here view chiuldren and families, we have to honestly admit that there is no promise given in Scripture whereby we can say that God is BOUND to save the children of believers. Election is not based upon or influenced by your physical lineage. That is exactly why the physical descendents of Abraham are not the children of promise!
Phillip
Originally posted by C. Matthew McMahon
The CoR is coextensive with election, but the CoG is not. Once that distinguishing element is made, life on the Puritanboard on this topic will be resolved.
Agreed. Of course, there is the rub...Originally posted by C. Matthew McMahon
The CoR is coextensive with election, but the CoG is not. Once that distinguishing element is made, life on the Puritanboard on this topic will be resolved.
All arguments to douse infant baptism will splatter infant circumcision as well.Here's my question:
When infants were circumcised, was it a confirmation that one was in the covenant or was it the token of God's covenant promise to Abraham?
Originally posted by SemperFideles
Agreed. Of course, there is the rub...Originally posted by C. Matthew McMahon
The CoR is coextensive with election, but the CoG is not. Once that distinguishing element is made, life on the Puritanboard on this topic will be resolved.
Originally posted by Mocha
Martin,
Here is a post from another forum that seemed pretty convincing that the "he" in Hebrews 10:29 could not be Christ. BTW, this post was from a Credo.
it is important that the main subject of the sentence is this individual who is deserving (AXIWQHSEQAI) punishment. the three participles are semantically subordinate to this verb and the prepositional phrase EN Wi hHGIASQH is semantically subordinate to TO hAIMA (this is what the diagram clearly shows). i see no reason from the grammar that any greek speaker would ever take TON hUION as the antecedent of hHGIASQH. i think this may be a case of trying to smooth out a difficult text because it is not in accordance with ones theology. unless someone can point out a semantic or pragmatic reason from the text itself (not other Scriptures and theologizing) why the proposed reading is warranted. if not, i strongly suggest that these current assertions that Christ is sanctified by His own blood be abandoned. thanks. (Quote by Doug Hoxworth)
See his diagram below.
How much severer punishment | do you think | he will
deserve
----------------------------------------------who---has
trampled under foot -> the Son of God,
----------------------------------------------and---has
regarded -> the blood of the covenant = as unclean
by which he was sanctified,
----------------------------------------------and---has
insulted -> the Spirit of grace?
It seems pretty convincing to me. Do you have any sources that can refute this?
Mike
Originally posted by Martin Marprelate
Originally posted by SemperFideles
Agreed. Of course, there is the rub...Originally posted by C. Matthew McMahon
The CoR is coextensive with election, but the CoG is not. Once that distinguishing element is made, life on the Puritanboard on this topic will be resolved.
There indeed is the rub. The fact is that the WCF knows nothing of a Covenant or Council of Redemption. It was added later in the SSK by (I believe) only two of the Westminster Divines.