under Pontius Pilate

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Puritan Board Junior
This phrase is in both the Apostle's and Nicene creeds.
who suffered under Pontius Pilate
he was crucified for us under Pontius Pilate

It seems out of place since several people/groups were involved in Christ's crucifixion. Why did the early church single him out in the creeds?
Is it not because he was the one to give the final command and was the local ruler at the time so that it also located Christ's crucifixion in history. So during the time of Pontius Pilate and by his command.
I believe the point is that Pilate is singled out for he believed Christ to be innocent yet sentenced him. (See Heidelberg Catechism) He was declared as the lamb without blemish in this instance.
It is a matter of stating the ultimate authority bearer. Jesus spoke to Pontius Pilate about the fact that he did have authority over Him by the decree of His Father. An authority bearer is the one who is ultimately responsible for the act itself in the most direct and unequivocal setting of accountability. The Jews were substantially accountable as well for using their authority to try him under their law and mark Him as a blasphemer instead of the Messianic King of all creation and the heavens. This was further augmented with their bearing Jesus before Pontius Pilate and instigating the ultimate decision to murder Him based upon their indirect authority over Pilate with the threat of unrest which was extremely dangerous for Pontius Pilate in his political position in Judea.
In addition to what has already been noted, I’ve seen scholars also point out several historical issues that likely attended naming Pilate in the Creed.

1) It reinforces the historicity of the Passion, as the governorship of Pontius Pilate is attested by several non-Christian sources, so naming him is a reminder of sorts that Jesus’ death factually occurred within the context of Roman rule and at a specific time in human history.​
2) The three main charges brought against Jesus by the Jews were of a largely political nature. “We have found this man… perverting our nation, and forbidding the payment of taxes to Caesar and saying that he is Christ the king” (Luke 23:2) So to name the most relevant political figure involved in the matter makes sense.​
3) I find this suggestion most fascinating of all… There is some debate over its date of origin, but it is thought that by the 2nd Century a proto-gnostic writing known as The Acts of Pilate (aka the Gospel of Nicodemus) was in circulation. This writing included a number of fake letters by Pilate, which portray him as a convert. The acceptance of this almost certainly false notion was even alluded to by Tertullian, who described Pilate as someone “who himself also in his own conscience was now a Christian.” (Apology, 21) The Acts further alleged that the emperor Tiberius was so convinced by reports from Pilate that he made an unsuccessful effort to have Jesus placed among the pantheon of Roman gods. There seems to have been several variations of the Acts, and its influence is particularly seen in the early 4th century - the same time the Nicene Creed was created - when an anti-Christian, pagan version was created in an attempt to discredit the supposed “Christian” account. So a reiteration of the biblical emphasis of the fact that Jesus suffered under Pilate would serve as a counterbalance to the ongoing deceptive use of his name, and the fallacious ideas that flowed from it.​
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