fralo4truth
Puritan Board Freshman
Jesus says here that the dead hear the voice of the Son of God and shall live. Some anti-means folks I used to affiliate with often appealed to this text as proof as their assertion that God regenerates without the use of means. It would be claimed that those dead in sins hear the voice of Christ DIRECTLY, much like those dead in the graves will hear his voice DIRECTLY. Since the physical dead will hear the voice of Christ without it going through a preacher, they would make an analogy that the same holds true for the spiritual dead in regeneration.
Now if we make hearing the voice of Christ equivalent to the first act of God upon the soul being regenerated (which I claim to be an immediate act), I have no quarrels with this interpretation, as long as we make sure to press the idea that conversion through the Word would most definitely follow, either logically or in order of time (depending on our particular view of the ordo salutis).
So my question is, do you all feel that the voice in John 5:25 is the immediate work of God upon the soul without the use of gospel means? Or is it His voice going through gospel instrumentality?
Thanks for your thoughts.
Now if we make hearing the voice of Christ equivalent to the first act of God upon the soul being regenerated (which I claim to be an immediate act), I have no quarrels with this interpretation, as long as we make sure to press the idea that conversion through the Word would most definitely follow, either logically or in order of time (depending on our particular view of the ordo salutis).
So my question is, do you all feel that the voice in John 5:25 is the immediate work of God upon the soul without the use of gospel means? Or is it His voice going through gospel instrumentality?
Thanks for your thoughts.