Saiph
Puritan Board Junior
I still don't see why God must be perfect. Why is this necessary?
???
God is perfection personified.
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I still don't see why God must be perfect. Why is this necessary?
Originally posted by Saiph
I still don't see why God must be perfect. Why is this necessary?
???
God is perfection personified.
Originally posted by Jeff_Bartel
The point is, that many people will not accept this premise. The greek gods were far from perfect.
How then would you go about using this argument as a "proof" given that not everybody will accept the premise that God is perfect? They will ask you, "How do you know God is perfect?"
Originally posted by Saiph
Jeff, name ANY diety other than YHWH and I can show by the religious writings concerniing that god that the deity is imperfect. And if the diety is shown to be imperfect in any measure, that diety cannot be God.
Originally posted by Saiph
If someone says, how do you know God is perfect I would say that the very the word idea of God gives "perfection" meaning in our minds.
Originally posted by Saiph
They have to embrace absurdity to deny it. And I am fine with that.
No one will stand before God and say, "Well, there just was not enough proof to convince me you existed, so why should I be held accountable ?"
Just because God gives "perfection" meaning in our minds does not answer the question. "How do you KNOW that God is pefect?" Only by the Scriptures. And therefore, in order to prove that God is perfect, you have to assume or presuppose Him.
Kant's objection to the ontological argument is that existence is not a property that can be attributed to beings like we can attribute other properties such as being blue, hard, or round. When we talk about entities existing, Kant contends that we do not mean to add existence as a property to their beings. In other words, the objection seems to be that one cannot go around adding existence as a property to God (or anything else for that matter) in order to define God (or anything else) into existence. Just as defining my bedroom as such a place that contains millions of dollars would not mean that a careful understanding of that definition of my room would really make it so. In order to see if that definition is true, we should go look at my room and see if it is accurate. Similarly, a definition of God must be checked with reality to see if it is correct.
Although Kant's objection has been influential and receives credence to this very day, it has been found unsatisfactory by some philosophers. For example, some thinkers controversially believe that existence can be thought of as a unique property. Alvin Plantinga has forcefully argued that Kant's objection does not conflict with anything in Anselm's argument. For Anselm does not contingently add existence as a property to God and define him into existence. Naturally these objections are contentious, which adds to the intrigue of the ontological argument.
Plantinga is careful to admit that his argument will only be convincing to those who believe that premise I is acceptable, which he knows will only be acceptable to those who already believe in God. However, Plantinga thinks this argument still has some philosophical value. For even though it probably will not persuade anyone to become a theist, it demonstrates that theism is rational, which is no trivial conclusion.
Originally posted by JohnV
As to Jeff's objection that, though God may be perfect, many will not accept that: whether people accept it or not is not the point. What is at stake here is whether it is true.
Anselm's entire point in the OA is to true to prove the existence of God APART FROM THE BIBLE. He failed. Even if the argument is sound, he steals a premise from the Bible, namely the perfection of God.
If I'm wearing brown socks, and pull up my trousers to prove it, and people just won't look, that does not make my socks another colour. People won't accept perfection or existence in God because they don't want to, not because it doesn't make good sense. Just think about it, if it doesn't make good sense, then it wouldn't be in the Bible either.The point that many people will not accept the premise that "God is perfect" is the point if you are trying to PROVE the existence of God.
Maybe "prove" is the wrong word here. Let's just say that we don't have to prove that God exists because He will do that on His own when and where He needs to, and do it much more convincingly than we could. The thing that I am doing is working with the truth that God is, and being consistent with that, because truth is consistent 100 times out of 100. Where it isn't consistent has nothing to do with truth, but with me. So I'm wrestling with my thinking in order to bring it in line with those things I do not yet understand but are definitely true. Both nature and Scripture attest to these things.The only way we can know that God is perfect is by the Scriptures. Therefore, when one uses the premise "God is perfect" they are stealing this from the Bible. In this, we are PRESUPPOSING the bible to be true, but wait....that is what we are ultimately trying to PROVE.
If we accept the Bible as true then we ought to also begin to see the overall consistency in God's other modes of revelation. Sure, the unbeliever is not going to believe it, even if someone they know well, and whom they know surely to be dead, should rise from the dead to testify to them. They have Moses and the prophets, if they do not believe them, then they will not believe if someone should rise from the dead. Look at all the miracles that Jesus did, and even of the kind that had never been done before, and could not be done in our time, such as restoring the sight of a man born blind, or healing a withered arm; purely impossible from a physical point of view, and yet done without qualm.If we accept that the Bible is true, there is no need to try to prove the existence of God. But advocating the perfection of God is presupposing the Bible is true.
I've read Proslogium several times, and never got that out of it. Where do you get "apart from the Bible" from; because I don't see that in his work?Anselm's entire point in the OA is to true to prove the existence of God APART FROM THE BIBLE. He failed. Even if the argument is sound, he steals a premise from the Bible, namely the perfection of God.
Again, you are attributing to Anselm motives that you cannot prove. But your syllogism is a good example of what I am trying to do, or to advocate. If the Bible says its true, then why would it not be consistent with all truth? And why can we not advocate that such truth is plain to all, as these things are also shadowed in nature?As I stated above, if we want to steal premises from the Bible, why not come up with a much simpler syllogism?
1. The bible is true. (something we are presupposing to advocate the perfection of God)
2. The bible says God exists. (it also says that God is perfect)
Conclusion: God exists. (the same conclusion as the OA)
In advocating the perfection of God, we are essentially doing the same thing, only a few steps removed. This was not Anselm's goal.
If you call the syllogism I made above a "proof" for the existence of God, so be it. However, this is not what the world wants when they ask for "proof."
Rationalism, also known as the rationalist movement, is a philosophical doctrine that asserts that the truth can best be discovered by reason and factual analysis, rather than faith, dogma or religious teaching.
In theology and the philosophy of religion, an ontological argument for the existence of God is an argument that God's existence can be proved a priori, that is, by intuition and reason alone .
You have accepted the lie of Kant. You either did not understand, or did not read the refactoring of the proof by Plantinga.I think that I have shown above that Anselm's argument fails at this.
Originally posted by puritansailor
As I understand Anselm, he is actually basing his whole argument upon the Scripture in Psalm 14, "The fool says in his heart, there is no God." That doesn't sound like "reason alone" to me. His entire argument seems like an exposition of the psychology of a man's unbelief in light of this Scripture. I could be wrong. John and Mark know Anselm much better than I.
Originally posted by Jeff_Bartel
John,
It is accepted that Anselm's Ontological argument is a proof via Rationalism.
From the article on rationalism:
Rationalism, also known as the rationalist movement, is a philosophical doctrine that asserts that the truth can best be discovered by reason and factual analysis, rather than faith, dogma or religious teaching.
From the article on the ontological argument:
In theology and the philosophy of religion, an ontological argument for the existence of God is an argument that God's existence can be proved a priori, that is, by intuition and reason alone .
I think that I have shown above that Anselm's argument fails at this.
Originally posted by Saiph
You have accepted the lie of Kant. You either did not understand, or did not read the refactoring of the proof by Plantinga.I think that I have shown above that Anselm's argument fails at this.
The OA will not persuade anyone to become a theist, but it does demonstrate that theism is rational.
Originally posted by Me Died Blue
I probably won't get very far into this one, but as just an initial thought, one of my main problems is with the "Existence is a necessary attribute of Perfection" statement. Epistemologically, one must ask how you even know what "perfection" is, or in other words by what standard you are defining it, or how you even have a concept of what that means.
Upon answering that question, it will naturally be asked how you got the standard you answer with, and eventually you'll need to get back to the beginning and end up with a self-validating source.
If at that point it's the biblical God that defines your standard of "perfection," then you're already presupposing God and hence the ontological argument won't be any use unless you justify your presupposition of God by demonstrating that God must be presupposed for anything to make sense - but if you've done that, you don't even need the ontological argument anymore.
On the other hand, if it's something other than the biblical God that ultimately and initially defines your standard of "perfection," then there's obviously an even bigger problem.
Perfection is a necessary attribute of God;
Existence is a necessary attribute of Perfection;
Therefore, Existence is a necessary attribute of God.
Originally posted by Saiph
A perfect triangle is conceivable in theory, but does that neccessitate its existence in reality ? I think your syllogism is an enthymeme based on the assumed ontological necessity contained in the idea of perfection.
Originally posted by Saiph
I do not have a problem with the major premise John. But the minor premise is sketchy. I think that is why Plantinga refactored it. A perfect triangle is conceivable in theory, but does that neccessitate its existence in reality ? I think your syllogism is an enthymeme based on the assumed ontological necessity contained in the idea of perfection.
Originally posted by Saiph
Mark, you and I agree. That was my point. The ontological necessity of God being perfect and existing by necessity, is different than abstract theoretical perfections in mathematics. Yet both are "perfect". The perfect triangle only exists by necessity in the subjective reality of mind. God exists subjectively and objectively.
The syllogism JohnV set forth assumes a metaphysical necessity for anything perfect, not just God. Unless I am reading it wrong. PLantinga's idea removes the argument from subjective contingencies, and limits the idea of perfection to a measure of ontological quality.
I. There is a possible world where a being has maximal greatness.
II. Necessarily, a being is maximally great only if it has maximal excellence in all possible worlds.
III. Necessarily, a being is maximally excellent in all possible worlds only if it has omniscience, omnipotence, and moral perfection.
IV. It would be impossible for a being with maximal greatness not to exist in any possible world.
V. Therefore, a being of maximal greatness exists in all possible worlds.
When it comes right down to it, there is not much onus placed upon me as the positor, because I am merely stating three simple terms in their simple relationship. It is the objectors that do the philosophical acrobatics to deflect the meanings of the terms and their relationship, while all I am doing is acquiescing to the ontological necessities of the ideas themselves.
Then explain to me the purpose of the miracle at the wedding, the turning of water into wine. I see no obvious redemptive analogical meaning from the text. Instead, in John 2:11 (NASB), you find:
"This beginning of His signs Jesus did in Cana of Galilee, and manifested His glory, and His disciples believed in Him."
It's purpose was to validate the person and work of Jesus Christ, to give clear evidence of His nature, and therefore to separate Himself from those false messiahs making similar claims, but unable to perform supernatural miracles.
Originally posted by Saiph
When it comes right down to it, there is not much onus placed upon me as the positor, because I am merely stating three simple terms in their simple relationship. It is the objectors that do the philosophical acrobatics to deflect the meanings of the terms and their relationship, while all I am doing is acquiescing to the ontological necessities of the ideas themselves.
True John, simple terms in simple relationships seem almost too easy to be true. Yet many of Christ's words were this way. On the surface, they were sometimes very cryptic, but to those with ears to hear, the cypher was solved, ans the simplicity became a richness with different layers of application and metaphor.
Could we instead add to the syllogism, that the necessisty of an eternal mind makes certain the basis for the ontological reality of even abstract perfections such as the perfect triangle ?