The Olive Tree and Baptists

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Ryan&Amber2013

Puritan Board Senior
So how do baptists understand Romans 11? What are the gentiles being cut off from? How can this be anything but the visible\invisible church distinction? Breaking covenant that is.

If it means salvation, we know salvation can't be lost.
 
Brandon,

I do have a special interest in this passage because two months ago I read it and saw continuity between the two covenants and the membership, and terms of how one gets in and gets broken off.

Your post concludes by stating that no one in the NC can be broken off, so the scenario is hypothetical, and yet it should still cause fear and humility. Don’t you think the conclusion of your post pretty much blunts the force of the warning? The example of the Jews being cause for fear and humility for something that will not and cannot happen?

Also, the impression I took is that God was cleaning house of all unbelief in the breaking off of the Jewish branches because the NC was introduced. Would t it be a simpler explanation to say that God at last brought the final curse He promised in the Pentateuch?
 
Sorry Ryan, I prefer not to discuss 1689 Federalism in this forum. Feel free to leave a comment on the blog post and we can discuss there.
 
Sorry Ryan, I prefer not to discuss 1689 Federalism in this forum.
And yet, by linking your blog, you are able to indirectly "discuss" (read: promote) your views without entertaining debate here. Seems a bit improper. Better to either engage on this forum (as you did in the past) or simply abstain altogether if you can't be bothered to do so, I would think.
 
So how do baptists understand Romans 11? What are the gentiles being cut off from? How can this be anything but the visible\invisible church distinction? Breaking covenant that is.

If it means salvation, we know salvation can't be lost.
I would understand Chapter 11 as Paul stating to us that the elect Israelite under the OC were part of what we would now term spiritual Israel, and those among them who were not of faith were cut off as not being really saved, and that under the NC now, we gentiles are through and by faith in same Messiah now seen as being included in the Spiritual Israel of God.
Only only those of faith in Yeshua are to be seen as being part of that group, as to God there is but one group within the Church and NC, saved, but to us there will be both wheat and tares.
 
I would understand Chapter 11 as Paul stating to us that the elect Israelite under the OC were part of what we would now term spiritual Israel, and those among them who were not of faith were cut off as not being really saved, and that under the NC now, we gentiles are through and by faith in same Messiah now seen as being included in the Spiritual Israel of God.
Only only those of faith in Yeshua are to be seen as being part of that group, as to God there is but one group within the Church and NC, saved, but to us there will be both wheat and tares.


I agree. Verse 17 mentions the natural branches (Unbelieving Jews) being broken off and the wild olive shoots (Gentiles like me) being grafted in.

Verse 22 says that if God didn't spare the Jews, what would make me think that he wouldn't cut me out just as He did to them? I must continue in his kindness otherwise I'll be cut off.

These verses are telling me the same thing as 2 Cor 13:5:

"Test yourselves to see if you are in the faith; examine yourselves! Or do you not recognize this about yourselves, that Jesus Christ is in you-- unless indeed you fail the test?"

and a gentile like myself being "cut off" would simply prove this verse:

1 John 2:19

"They went out from us, but they were not really of us; for if they had been of us, they would have remained with us; but they went out, so that it would be shown that they all are not of us."
 
I must continue in his kindness otherwise I'll be cut off.
Here is where I'm hung up. If in the new covenant, none can be cut off, why would God even use such language? It just sounds like we can still break covenant with God. Hebrews even talks about spurning the blood of the covenant which sanctified us. How could a tare be sanctified by God unless there are some real relational factors involved?

I see what you're saying and it's laid out clearly, I guess I just don't perceive the Bible that way.
 
So how do baptists understand Romans 11? What are the gentiles being cut off from? How can this be anything but the visible\invisible church distinction? Breaking covenant that is.

If it means salvation, we know salvation can't be lost.
Ryan, when Paul wrote, "Behold then the kindness and severity of God; to those who fell, severity, but to you, God’s kindness, if you continue in His kindness; otherwise you also will be cut off." (Romans 11:22), he was warning of the consequences of unbelief. In the following verse, speaking of the Jews, Paul writes, "And they also, if they do not continue in their unbelief, will be grafted in, for God is able to graft them in again" (v. 23). Romans 11 is really about faith, not national origin. As Paul wrote in Romans 9:4 about Israel, "to whom belongs the adoption as sons, and the glory and the covenants and the giving of the Law and the temple service and the promises". Israel had a rich heritage and tradition. They were the people of the covenant. The nation lost its standing because of unbelief, but we know from scripture that God's true people are one of faith; members of a better covenant (Hebrews 8:6).
 
Here is where I'm hung up. If in the new covenant, none can be cut off, why would God even use such language? It just sounds like we can still break covenant with God.

I understand your frustration in dealing with different verses that seem to contradict the doctrine of the perseverance of the saints. This is a webpage that deals with those verses in Hebrews.
 
Romans 11 is really about faith, not national origin.
I think I see what you're saying. But if this is about faith, how would you as a baptist say this is referring to people being cut off from salvation? I would think you as a Baptist would be the first to say that the NC is perfect and that one with faith cannot be cut off. Am I misunderstanding?
 
It's like God telling you to watch your step or else you're out. God says that to each of us. Now, if we're elect, then we won't actually lose our salvation BUT, we'll be sure to do what we can to prove to ourselves and others that we are true Christians and that we are a part of the church universal. This is a threat to Apostates who will inevitably fall away from the faith. They WILL be cut off from the church in the end.
 
It looks to me like the understanding of Romans 11 is going to be framed in light of what you believe about the covenants. If the NC continues from the AC, then unbelievers may be external members who are cut off. But if you believe the NC is not a continuation, then the branches which are cut off are ones that did not belong there.

What is the tree, and what is the sap? It’s apparent that both the OT and NT church had it. Is the sap for those living at the time of Moses the same as we have now, and is the tree the same, or did they alter?

As for the Israelites being broken off because of unbelief, the Baptistic view of some seems to be that because of the coming of the NC that Israel was broken off for unbelief. However, hadn’t God already cut off branches multiple times in Israel’s history, particularly with Hebrews saying those in the desert under Moses did not enter because of unbelief? How is that different? And what of the many threats of being cut off, and executions of those such as Achan, the exiles, the enemy invasions, all of which God uses to chastise and even cut out the unfaithful? Isn’t the breaking in Romans 11 more of the same?

On the Paedo side, Brandon’s article argues that the branches broken off were natural branches, and he has some quotes from Calvin and others. The identity of the church and the identity of the nation of Israel seem to run quite close together. Thoughts?
 
Romans 11 is warning the Gentiles at large not to boast themselves against the Jews (and we see this all the time in history!), because the Gentiles' hope of salvation is rooted in the olive tree of Jewry. Salvation came to the Gentiles through the Jewish Messiah, and the People of God before Messiah were largely Jews. Now, God used the means of Jewish unbelief to persecute the early NT church, and scatter them among the Gentiles with the message of salvation. But the Gentiles are not to say: "We're better than them there Jews, because they killed Jesus! Now we're the top of the heap!" Again, have we not seen that played out in history?
So I see the olive tree as not speaking of individuals, but as groups writ large. Don't boast of America having great religious light as opposed to those unbelieving Israelites: God shed great light on America, but can withdraw the light and shine it effectually where He will.
So the whole thing, in my understanding, is warning against slamming the Jewish nation, since it was only through them that we have the hope of salvation.
 
I think I see what you're saying. But if this is about faith, how would you as a baptist say this is referring to people being cut off from salvation? I would think you as a Baptist would be the first to say that the NC is perfect and that one with faith cannot be cut off. Am I misunderstanding?
Think of this in the same way God warns us in Hebrews 6 to be found among the saved, and not to be shown in the end as being false professing Christians only in Hebrews Chapter 6.
 
I will go ahead and throw out an answer to my own question. As I said, I have a special interest in the meaning of this passage because it is the one that got me to rethink my views on baptism and the covenants.

The tree in the whole is the Abrahamic Covenant. The branches represent visible membership, and the sap is the promises in the AC.

God came to Abraham and promised to be God to Him and his descendants (physical and spiritual). “To be God to you and your offspring after you.” In that is contained all the blessings of salvation—justification, sanctification, mortification, cleansing and forgiveness, and fellowship with God (all of which are represented by circumcision). Said another way, “This is eternal life, that they may know you the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom you have sent.” God made a first move and bound the people to Himself, and promised to them in a special, personal way the benefits of salvation by faith, and He started by making Himself their God and claiming them as His people. How God was God to Abraham, He would also be to Abraham’s children. If these are not what God was offering, God has offered a substandard form of relationship to Abraham and his children which would not delight a spiritually-minded man. And we know Abraham’s eyes were not on the physical land, but the heavenly city. That’s why I have such trouble now with the idea that the primary purpose was land and a physical people, and that circumcision is just a national mark, and the Jews were mainly there to bear the Messiah. That doesn’t live up to what God says, “to be God to you and your offspring after you.” But the blessings of the AC are the fatness of the root.

The NT church is not feeding off of any different promises. What was promised to Abraham in that covenant is promised to us; and the church today is not a different entity, but the same one. And God deals with all members the same way; if they were within the visible church in the OT but prove to be fruitless they will be broken off. The same thing is happening in the OT, and on the same grounds.

As I think through this, the most natural explanation seems to be that the membership constitution of the administration has not changed.
 
I will go ahead and throw out an answer to my own question. As I said, I have a special interest in the meaning of this passage because it is the one that got me to rethink my views on baptism and the covenants.

The tree in the whole is the Abrahamic Covenant. The branches represent visible membership, and the sap is the promises in the AC.

God came to Abraham and promised to be God to Him and his descendants (physical and spiritual). “To be God to you and your offspring after you.” In that is contained all the blessings of salvation—justification, sanctification, mortification, cleansing and forgiveness, and fellowship with God (all of which are represented by circumcision). Said another way, “This is eternal life, that they may know you the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom you have sent.” God made a first move and bound the people to Himself, and promised to them in a special, personal way the benefits of salvation by faith, and He started by making Himself their God and claiming them as His people. How God was God to Abraham, He would also be to Abraham’s children. If these are not what God was offering, God has offered a substandard form of relationship to Abraham and his children which would not delight a spiritually-minded man. And we know Abraham’s eyes were not on the physical land, but the heavenly city. That’s why I have such trouble now with the idea that the primary purpose was land and a physical people, and that circumcision is just a national mark, and the Jews were mainly there to bear the Messiah. That doesn’t live up to what God says, “to be God to you and your offspring after you.” But the blessings of the AC are the fatness of the root.

The NT church is not feeding off of any different promises. What was promised to Abraham in that covenant is promised to us; and the church today is not a different entity, but the same one. And God deals with all members the same way; if they were within the visible church in the OT but prove to be fruitless they will be broken off. The same thing is happening in the OT, and on the same grounds.

As I think through this, the most natural explanation seems to be that the membership constitution of the administration has not changed.
My understanding of the OC was that there were some who were able to partake of those promised physical blessings due to obeying God, but did not mean automatically that they were saved, but only redeemed are included under the NC itself.
 
I will go ahead and throw out an answer to my own question. As I said, I have a special interest in the meaning of this passage because it is the one that got me to rethink my views on baptism and the covenants.

The tree in the whole is the Abrahamic Covenant. The branches represent visible membership, and the sap is the promises in the AC.

God came to Abraham and promised to be God to Him and his descendants (physical and spiritual). “To be God to you and your offspring after you.” In that is contained all the blessings of salvation—justification, sanctification, mortification, cleansing and forgiveness, and fellowship with God (all of which are represented by circumcision). Said another way, “This is eternal life, that they may know you the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom you have sent.” God made a first move and bound the people to Himself, and promised to them in a special, personal way the benefits of salvation by faith, and He started by making Himself their God and claiming them as His people. How God was God to Abraham, He would also be to Abraham’s children. If these are not what God was offering, God has offered a substandard form of relationship to Abraham and his children which would not delight a spiritually-minded man. And we know Abraham’s eyes were not on the physical land, but the heavenly city. That’s why I have such trouble now with the idea that the primary purpose was land and a physical people, and that circumcision is just a national mark, and the Jews were mainly there to bear the Messiah. That doesn’t live up to what God says, “to be God to you and your offspring after you.” But the blessings of the AC are the fatness of the root.

The NT church is not feeding off of any different promises. What was promised to Abraham in that covenant is promised to us; and the church today is not a different entity, but the same one. And God deals with all members the same way; if they were within the visible church in the OT but prove to be fruitless they will be broken off. The same thing is happening in the OT, and on the same grounds.

As I think through this, the most natural explanation seems to be that the membership constitution of the administration has not changed.
But the primary purpose was not land and a physical people! God had his saints among the OT throng--even a pretty large remnant in Elijah's time. But the land, the sacrifices, the types and shadows were speaking of a better time, when the Mediator of a new covenant would fulfill all those types, and then reign spiritually in the hearts of His true people, the redeemed of the Lord. Not redeemed from physical slavery in Egypt, but truly redeemed from the Egypt of their sins. In that day the covenant would be an unbreakable covenant, because there would be no unbelievers in the covenant--all who were actual members of this New Covenant would be regenerate. Why do you long to return to the types and shadows of the old covenant, wherein membership did not vouchsafe eternal life? Where the sign of the covenant applied so often meant nothing, salvifically speaking? Where you could be circumcised in the flesh but not in the heart?
The Mediator has instituted a New Covenant, Harley: one in which membership DOES guarantee eternal life. One in which membership is by the will and good pleasure of God. As it says: "Which were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God."
 
But the primary purpose was not land and a physical people! God had his saints among the OT throng--even a pretty large remnant in Elijah's time. But the land, the sacrifices, the types and shadows were speaking of a better time, when the Mediator of a new covenant would fulfill all those types, and then reign spiritually in the hearts of His true people, the redeemed of the Lord. Not redeemed from physical slavery in Egypt, but truly redeemed from the Egypt of their sins. In that day the covenant would be an unbreakable covenant, because there would be no unbelievers in the covenant--all who were actual members of this New Covenant would be regenerate. Why do you long to return to the types and shadows of the old covenant, wherein membership did not vouchsafe eternal life? Where the sign of the covenant applied so often meant nothing, salvifically speaking? Where you could be circumcised in the flesh but not in the heart?
The Mediator has instituted a New Covenant, Harley: one in which membership DOES guarantee eternal life. One in which membership is by the will and good pleasure of God. As it says: "Which were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God."

I had thought all these things myself, but then I realized the abrogation of the OC in Hebrews 8 is not the abrogation of the AC. God tells us which covenant is the one in which it was types and shadows, and that was the one which was formed when God brought Israel out of Egypt, the Mosaic Covenant (MC = OC there)—not the one formed 430 years prior with Abraham. You see in Hebrews that the OC and its types are gone, but Abraham’s covenant and promises are more relevant than ever.

But the comment on circumcision is where there is a great diversion. As I examine circumcision I see that it meant to Abraham imputed righteousness (which Paul says), forgiveness of sins, a new life, and fellowship with God. Thus I conclude that it is not empty of salvific meaning—quite the opposite. Every Jew after Abraham ought to have viewed that cut in the flesh as a seal of the promise--that like Abraham, they too could be righteous by faith. So, circumcision preached the Gospel of free grace and it’s benevits. It wasn’t a salvation that would eventually be available, but one they could have here and now like Abraham did.

Brother, do you believe God had a way of winnowing out the unfaithful in the OC times? If so, was it really acceptable to God for there to be unbelievers in the covenant community?

I’ll say more if I have time. God bless brother.
 
Here, though, is where circumcision differs from baptism: it was a physical thing that visibly (well, withing the limits of modesty), distinguished those descended from Abraham from the heathen nations. They were uncircumcised--pretty easy to verify. God began with Abraham to paint a picture of a people apart, separated unto himself, that couldn't easily mingle with the heathen. But the picture was not the real thing, though some of those who were involved in that picture (Abraham, Isaac, Jacob, etc.) were truly partakers. "Circumcised in the heart."
In the NC, God's people is truly a people apart--not apart by living behind closed borders, but apart in the way they live and behave even though living among the heathen like wheat among tares. The AC is still, I believe, in force--but in a better way; a more real way; the way that the administration of circumcision was only an earnest of. So we who are Christ's are circumcised in the heart, but that is not a work of man but of God. And baptism is a visible testimony that that real circumcision--the one that really matters--has been performed by a sovereign work of grace.
But let me ask this: it keeps being stated that baptism testifies that saving grace is available to the person baptized if he will receive it. But don't we agree that saving grace is available to all who believe in Christ, whether previously baptized of not?
 
Here, though, is where circumcision differs from baptism: it was a physical thing that visibly (well, withing the limits of modesty), distinguished those descended from Abraham from the heathen nations. They were uncircumcised--pretty easy to verify. God began with Abraham to paint a picture of a people apart, separated unto himself, that couldn't easily mingle with the heathen. But the picture was not the real thing, though some of those who were involved in that picture (Abraham, Isaac, Jacob, etc.) were truly partakers. "Circumcised in the heart."
In the NC, God's people is truly a people apart--not apart by living behind closed borders, but apart in the way they live and behave even though living among the heathen like wheat among tares. The AC is still, I believe, in force--but in a better way; a more real way; the way that the administration of circumcision was only an earnest of. So we who are Christ's are circumcised in the heart, but that is not a work of man but of God. And baptism is a visible testimony that that real circumcision--the one that really matters--has been performed by a sovereign work of grace.
But let me ask this: it keeps being stated that baptism testifies that saving grace is available to the person baptized if he will receive it. But don't we agree that saving grace is available to all who believe in Christ, whether previously baptized of not?
I thought that the saving grace of the NC has already been applied towards the person who undergoes the rite now then?
 
I will go ahead and throw out an answer to my own question. As I said, I have a special interest in the meaning of this passage because it is the one that got me to rethink my views on baptism and the covenants.

The tree in the whole is the Abrahamic Covenant. The branches represent visible membership, and the sap is the promises in the AC.

God came to Abraham and promised to be God to Him and his descendants (physical and spiritual). “To be God to you and your offspring after you.” In that is contained all the blessings of salvation—justification, sanctification, mortification, cleansing and forgiveness, and fellowship with God (all of which are represented by circumcision). Said another way, “This is eternal life, that they may know you the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom you have sent.” God made a first move and bound the people to Himself, and promised to them in a special, personal way the benefits of salvation by faith, and He started by making Himself their God and claiming them as His people. How God was God to Abraham, He would also be to Abraham’s children. If these are not what God was offering, God has offered a substandard form of relationship to Abraham and his children which would not delight a spiritually-minded man. And we know Abraham’s eyes were not on the physical land, but the heavenly city. That’s why I have such trouble now with the idea that the primary purpose was land and a physical people, and that circumcision is just a national mark, and the Jews were mainly there to bear the Messiah. That doesn’t live up to what God says, “to be God to you and your offspring after you.” But the blessings of the AC are the fatness of the root.

The NT church is not feeding off of any different promises. What was promised to Abraham in that covenant is promised to us; and the church today is not a different entity, but the same one. And God deals with all members the same way; if they were within the visible church in the OT but prove to be fruitless they will be broken off. The same thing is happening in the OT, and on the same grounds.

As I think through this, the most natural explanation seems to be that the membership constitution of the administration has not changed.
Allow me to have one more crack at this, since in pondering it I recalled something that hasn't been mentioned. Because of the figurative language the Bible uses, we can't take every reference to children to mean "The immediate physical descendants of every individual". When God speaks to the nation of Israel about them, their children, and their children's children, He doesn't always mean the physical offspring of the individual readers. He means the heirs of Israel as a whole: the heirs of His people. So Isaiah 60:4, speaking of the Gentiles receiving the Gospel, says, "...thy sons shall come from far..." It's figurative language using the picture of a family to express a spiritual reality. Nations are often referred to in this way in the OT prophets "Virgin daughter of Babylon" "Shout, oh Daughter of Jerusalem" &ct.
This is the same way in which I am now a descendant of Abraham without having proceeded from his loins. An attempt to make a strict literal interpretation of figurative language always leads to confusion at best, and at it's worst has given the world the pernicious error of Dispensationalism.
Now, I'm not accusing anyone here of being dispensational, but only pointing out where getting too literal will lead.
 
Allow me to have one more crack at this, since in pondering it I recalled something that hasn't been mentioned. Because of the figurative language the Bible uses, we can't take every reference to children to mean "The immediate physical descendants of every individual". When God speaks to the nation of Israel about them, their children, and their children's children, He doesn't always mean the physical offspring of the individual readers. He means the heirs of Israel as a whole: the heirs of His people. So Isaiah 60:4, speaking of the Gentiles receiving the Gospel, says, "...thy sons shall come from far..." It's figurative language using the picture of a family to express a spiritual reality. Nations are often referred to in this way in the OT prophets "Virgin daughter of Babylon" "Shout, oh Daughter of Jerusalem" &ct.
This is the same way in which I am now a descendant of Abraham without having proceeded from his loins. An attempt to make a strict literal interpretation of figurative language always leads to confusion at best, and at it's worst has given the world the pernicious error of Dispensationalism.
Now, I'm not accusing anyone here of being dispensational, but only pointing out where getting too literal will lead.

I do have thoughts on this, but would you be willing to move this over to the “Finer Thoughts on the New Covenant” thread since we are already discussing this issue there?
 
Please rephrase--I don't understand what you said or asked. Or whether it was which.
I was just saying that there is no saving grace being imparted in the water baptism itself, so those who would be taking that rite would be the ones now actually under the NC. the saved in Christ. One must be saved and indwelt by the Holy Spirit before taking the water baptism.
 
Allow me to have one more crack at this, since in pondering it I recalled something that hasn't been mentioned. Because of the figurative language the Bible uses, we can't take every reference to children to mean "The immediate physical descendants of every individual". When God speaks to the nation of Israel about them, their children, and their children's children, He doesn't always mean the physical offspring of the individual readers. He means the heirs of Israel as a whole: the heirs of His people. So Isaiah 60:4, speaking of the Gentiles receiving the Gospel, says, "...thy sons shall come from far..." It's figurative language using the picture of a family to express a spiritual reality. Nations are often referred to in this way in the OT prophets "Virgin daughter of Babylon" "Shout, oh Daughter of Jerusalem" &ct.
This is the same way in which I am now a descendant of Abraham without having proceeded from his loins. An attempt to make a strict literal interpretation of figurative language always leads to confusion at best, and at it's worst has given the world the pernicious error of Dispensationalism.
Now, I'm not accusing anyone here of being dispensational, but only pointing out where getting too literal will lead.
The offspring of Abraham would be those who shared in believing in the God of Israel, while not needing to be an actual Israelite.
 
I do have thoughts on this, but would you be willing to move this over to the “Finer Thoughts on the New Covenant” thread since we are already discussing this issue there?
Perfectly willing, if only I knew how. Perhaps a mod can do it for us.
 
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