The Law of God: MORAL, CIVIL, CEREMONIAL

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deathtolife

Puritan Board Freshman
I am still banging out covenant theology, though convinced, I am trying to understand the distinction that some reformed theologians make with the law of God.
Is it hermeneutically sound to be making this 3 fold distinction?
What are the Scriptural reasons for this? Is this not readining into the text?
What then is the law of Christ?
If there are threads already answering these types of question may you please direct me? Any responses would be greatly appreciated.

Grace of our Lord Jesus be with you all!
 
You can start here:

LBC Chapter 19

Paragraph 2. The same law that was first written in the heart of man continued to be a perfect rule of righteousness after the fall,4 and was delivered by God upon Mount Sinai, in ten commandments, and written in two tables, the four first containing our duty towards God, and the other six, our duty to man.5
4 Rom. 2:14,15
5 Deut. 10:4

Paragraph 3. Besides this law, commonly called moral, God was pleased to give to the people of Israel ceremonial laws, containing several typical ordinances, partly of worship, prefiguring Christ, his graces, actions, sufferings, and benefits;6 and partly holding forth divers instructions of moral duties,7 all which ceremonial laws being appointed only to the time of reformation, are, by Jesus Christ the true Messiah and only law-giver, who was furnished with power from the Father for that end abrogated and taken away.8
6 Heb. 10:1; Col. 2:17
7 1 Cor. 5:7
8 Col. 2:14,16,17; Eph. 2:14,16

Paragraph 4. To them also he gave sundry judicial laws, which expired together with the state of that people, not obliging any now by virtue of that institution; their general equity only being of modern use.9
9 1 Cor. 9:8-10

I don't see how you could question the existence of these three categories. However, people do sometimes argue about which specific laws belong in which specific category. People also argue about the 'general equity' of certain judicial laws.
 
I found a brief defense of those divisions at the end of this thread.

I also found these threads that--in one post or another--defend the Ten Commandments as the moral law. While that does not directly answer your question, if it can be seen that one part of the law is different from another, then it is more easy to accept the Reformed division of the law. There could be other and better threads out there, but these are the ones I happened to find when I was looking around here last week for an answer to a similar question you raised.

http://www.puritanboard.com/f54/how-can-i-know-about-ten-commandments-57124/

http://www.puritanboard.com/f54/trying-understand-law-42305/

http://www.puritanboard.com/f54/tablets-stone-ministry-death-10297/
 
There are indeed these divisions in the law, such that the 10C can be clearly identified as a summary of the moral law.

The divisions however are not "watertight" and in order for the law to be better understood the moral, ceremonial and judicial parts must be seen in context with each other.

E.g. although the 10C are a summary of the moral law, they were presented to Moses and the Israelites in a ceremonial form, which we no longer have i.e. written on stone and laid up in the ark of the covenant.

They also had an immediate judicial aspect, the 10C being the basic covenant and constitutional and judicial document of the typological Kingdom of God, Israel.

There are many other ways in which there is overlap between the judicial. ceremonial and moral categories, but the 10C can be identified as the summary of the moral law, and moral precepts and principles can be identified throughout the other legislation.
 
The reformed triadic division of the law is not perspicuous. I'm leaning more towards Rushdoony's position that the division is artificial and antinomian. The more clearly men separate God's law into the moral, civil and ceremonial buckets, the easier it is to see the inconsistencies in their process.

The more I try to comprehend the classic, reformed division of the law, the less convinced I am that the division is valid. The experience, for me, is like trying to understand dispensationalism: I can read all the pre-eminent theological arguments, but I cannot verify them through scripture alone.
 
I think that if we use the Scriptures and reason (rather than trying to find a proof text) we can see that the division can be made. when the author of Hebrews wrote:

Heb 10:1 For since the law has but a shadow of the good things to come instead of the true form of these realities, it can never, by the same sacrifices that are continually offered every year, make perfect those who draw near.
Obviously, he is making a division in the law: this is what we call the CEREMONIAL law.

In these passages we can see another division of the law:
Rom 3:20 For by works of the law no human being will be justified in his sight, since through the law comes knowledge of sin.

1Jn 3:4 Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law.
Sin still exists and we still commit sin under the New Covenant and we know that we have sinned because we broke the law, however, that law cannot refer to the animal sacrifices in the Old testament. I can't say that I have sinned because I didn't bring a sacrifice to the altar to redeem my first-born son. There's got to be a division, when they speak about the law in those terms, it cannot refer to the whole law found in the Pentateuch. this is what we call the MORAL law. It is the breaking of the moral law what constitutes a sin in the New Covenant.

Then there are other laws that are not a shadow of things to come because these are not ceremonies and sacrifices, these are laws that have to do with judging and punishment for crimes, and things like that, we are not commanded to continue those laws, they served for Israel as a theocratic nation, but as the Gospel spread to all the nations, the commandment that we have is to abide by the particular laws of our country, not by those laws that we find in the Old Testament. If somebody steals something from me I cannot apply Old Testament laws to that person, I have to take it to the local authorities and go by the law that rules this country. this is what we call the CIVIL laws.
 
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