v 47: And Laban called it Jegarsahadutha: but Jacob called it Galeed. This suggests that they were speakers of two different languages. Would those languages have been close enough for easy mutual understanding? If not, is there any way of knowing in which language they would have communicated, especially on first meeting? (same question for Isaac and Rebecca). This has only just occurred to me. Well after Babel, different peoples often seem to communicate with ease (cf eg Joseph in Egypt, Samson among the Philistines). How did that work? I may be wrong, but I can't recall linguistic comprehension's even being mentioned as a possible issue, until the visit of the Assyrians to Hezekiah.