I just began reading Arnold Fruchtenbaum's book "The Footsteps of the Messiah." I'm reading this on the tails of "Before Jerusalem Fell" by Kenneth Gentry. Currently I am digging through anything that I can in order to better understand a "brand" of eschatology.
As I step into the pages of Mr. Fruchtenbaum's book, I read on page 13:
This seems to me to be a very cavalier dismissal of the weighty evidence given by Gentry concerning the epistemology of the word "shortly" (tachos) and "near" (mello) in Revelation, and in Scripture throughout. Granted, I'm not a Greek scholar, albeit I have a working knowledge of the language, but this concerned me. The seeming immediacy of the content of the book and its grammatical structure would press me to think that John believed these things truly were about to take place; shortly, were near; must soon come to pass. Or, maybe I'm wrong and John was writing to say, "These things must soon come to pass, which means in the far future."
I don't mean to seem sarcastic. Truly, I'm not. But if anyone has any further studies on this word, those phrases, etc, I'd be obliged. I've read much of what Thomas Ice wrote. It is indeed compelling stuff.
To me, if this issue of the immediate expectancy of these things to happen cannot be reconciled, then I cannot get past the beginning of this book. Does that make sense?
Thanks and blessings,
Dustin...
[Edited on 28-12-2004 by Areopagus]
As I step into the pages of Mr. Fruchtenbaum's book, I read on page 13:
Verse one further states that the things that are being revealed *must shortly come to pass.* This is often misunderstood to mean that all the prophecies of the book were to be fulfilled soon after they were given. Others use this phrase to teach that since these prophecies were not fulfilled soon after they were given, it is not necessary to take these prophecies too seriously. However, the word *shortly* simply means that once the day for fulfillment comes, there will be no delay in its execution.
This seems to me to be a very cavalier dismissal of the weighty evidence given by Gentry concerning the epistemology of the word "shortly" (tachos) and "near" (mello) in Revelation, and in Scripture throughout. Granted, I'm not a Greek scholar, albeit I have a working knowledge of the language, but this concerned me. The seeming immediacy of the content of the book and its grammatical structure would press me to think that John believed these things truly were about to take place; shortly, were near; must soon come to pass. Or, maybe I'm wrong and John was writing to say, "These things must soon come to pass, which means in the far future."
I don't mean to seem sarcastic. Truly, I'm not. But if anyone has any further studies on this word, those phrases, etc, I'd be obliged. I've read much of what Thomas Ice wrote. It is indeed compelling stuff.
To me, if this issue of the immediate expectancy of these things to happen cannot be reconciled, then I cannot get past the beginning of this book. Does that make sense?
Thanks and blessings,
Dustin...
[Edited on 28-12-2004 by Areopagus]