The Faith OF Christ?

[fralo4truth]

In a few New Testament passages the expression 'the faith of Christ' or something comparable occurs (e.g. Rom. 3:22; Gal. 2:16; 3:22). What do you feel is meant by this, in distinction from 'faith in Christ' (e.g. Gal. 3:26)?

1) The faith which Jesus himself exercised.

2) The object of our faith, or Christ himself.

3) The source of ouf faith, as it comes from him as a gift.

3) The body of truth, or the gospel, as in Jude 1:3: "...the faith once delivered to the saints..."

Or something else maybe?

 

[Contra_Mundum]

Gal 3:26 Πάντες γὰρ υἱοὶ Θεοῦ ἐστε διὰ τῆς πίστεως ἐν Χριστῷ ᾿Ιησοῦ
for sons of God are you All through (the) faith in Christ Jesus.

Gal 3:22 ἀλλὰ συνέκλεισεν ἡ γραφὴ τὰ πάντα ὑπὸ ἁμαρτίαν, ἵνα ἡ ἐπαγγελία ἐκ πίστεως ᾿Ιησοῦ Χριστοῦ δοθῇ τοῖς πιστεύουσι.
but the Scripture has enclosed (the) all under sin, in-order-that the promise from faith of Christ Jesus might be given to believers.

The first thing to remember is that prepositions are "workhorses" of Greek (and just about every other language). Thus, its naive for anyone to claim that the use of the dative "en" (in), ref. the first example, is definitive of one meaning (e.g locative, directional) always and everywhere. Someone could suggest that the faith is a disposition of Christ! (he's the closest subject) because this sentence alone doesn't contain explicit reference to whose exercise of faith. The true meaning is that the same persons who are "sons" exercise their faith directionally toward Christ, or placing it locatively in Christ. But the preposition alone doesn't tell us that.

The second example doesn't even use a preposition, but merely takes the genitive case. All the cases get used in a variety of ways, conveying different senses; so once again only context will help determine the particular use of the author.

Gal 2:16 εἰδότες δὲ ὅτι οὐ δικαιοῦται ἄνθρωπος ἐξ ἔργων νόμου ἐὰν μὴ διὰ πίστεως ᾿Ιησοῦ Χριστοῦ, καὶ ἡμεῖς εἰς Χριστὸν ᾿Ιησοῦν ἐπιστεύσαμεν, ἵνα δικαιωθῶμεν ἐκ πίστεως Χριστοῦ καὶ οὐκ ἐξ ἔργων νόμου, διότι οὐ δικαιωθήσεται ἐξ ἔργων νόμου πᾶσα σάρξ.
yet knowing that a man is not justified from works of law but rather through faith of Jesus Christ, so we-ourselves believed into Christ Jesus in-order-that we might be justified from faith of Christ even not from works of law, because that no flesh will be justified from works of law.

This verse contains three different expressions, all connected to the "pist-" noun or verb. The first is another genitive case, and the preposition associated with faith is "dia;" the second uses the preposition "eis" (into or in) which takes an accusative case object; and the third is another genitive case, this time the prepositoin associated with faith is "ek/ex." Once again, the variety of expression is demonstrated--with Christ a different preposition (eis vs. en), and with faith different prepositions (dia and ex).

The thought most likely conveyed by the genitive-Christ construction is that of "reference." This is faith "with reference to" Christ, or more simply of Christ. This idea fits perfectly with the manifold expressions, leading toward a single basic idea--Christ as the object of faith. Faith is placed "in" or "toward" him, and "into" him or "for" (committed to) him.

The idea that the use of the term "of Christ" is a subjective genitive has been revived by NTWright, thus turning the phrase into something like "the faithfulness of Christ." One really needs to ask if a text like Rom.3:22, "the righteousness of God through faith in Jesus Christ for all who believe," has indeed been so misunderstood. Clearly, the believers need an object for their faith. And the Person of Christ adequately fills that role--one could easily imagine the unnecessary phrase "..believe in him," added to the end. It's unnecessary because the expression just before it contains the object.

Indeed, the latter phrase emphasizes the comprehensive provision of the righteousness of God through through faith in Christ unto everyone (bar none) who has that particular faith. The terminology echoes the introductory words of Rom.1:17-18, "righteousness revealed from faith, to faith" (ἐκ πίστεως εἰς πίστιν). As J.Murray explained, "by means of faith, and unto every exercise of such faith."

The NT (and certainly Paul's) great emphasis is on faith in the God who works for us to save us, through the Lord Jesus Christ, who becomes the object of our faith. Jesus, who said, "believe in me," characterized his own hope and trust (as a man) differently. He knew his Father; he spoke of them being "one." He DID the will of his Father, which shows an emphasis on his obedience. The point of his labor was not for his own "qualification," but was for our sake, in order to procure for us a positive righteousness which we lacked. The emphasis falls on his righteousness (describing his perfect conformity to the will of the Father) rather than his faithfulness (describing the manner of his obedience). The latter is an attitude that ensures the former, but the righteousness as a concrete and quality achievement is ultimately what we need imputed to us.