Barnpreacher
Puritan Board Junior
I am wondering what is the reformed view on the standing of the elect before they are born again? If Christ has already died for the sins of the elect how can an elect person be viewed as condemned in the eyes of God until he is born again? Do the reformed simply say that the condemnation in John 3 is an eternal condemnation therefore it cannot apply to the elect? At any rate, how can the elect stand at guilt for their sins if Christ has already paid for them (including the sin of unbelief)? No one would argue that an elect person is lost before they are born again, correct?
Not trying to trap anyone, just trying to continually learn the reformed view of the Scriptures. This coming from a pastor that is a long time advocate of semi-Pelagian/dispensational type doctrine. I'm leaning about 75-25 now toward's the doctrines of grace, but there are still some troubling points of the reformed view for me such as the question I raise here. Any help would be greatly appreciated.
Not trying to trap anyone, just trying to continually learn the reformed view of the Scriptures. This coming from a pastor that is a long time advocate of semi-Pelagian/dispensational type doctrine. I'm leaning about 75-25 now toward's the doctrines of grace, but there are still some troubling points of the reformed view for me such as the question I raise here. Any help would be greatly appreciated.