The Definite Article in Ephesians 2:12

[bookslover]

remember that you were at that time separated from Christ, alienated from the commonwealth of Israel and strangers to the covenants of promise, having no hope and without God in the world (ESV)

In the Greek text, there is a definite article before "promise" in the phrase "strangers to the covenants of [the] promise".

However, only the ASV (1901) and the NIV (1978) (!) include the definite article in their translations.

The KJV, NASB, and the ESV all exclude the "the" from this phrase (these are all the translations I've checked).

I think the definite article should be translated because (1) it's there and (2) it's important theologically: there are multiple covenants, but only one promise.

Do you think I'm right? And, why would there be disagreement among so many reputable (OK, I'm being nice to the NIV, here, but it's one of only two that includes it) translations regarding what seems to be a simple exegetical task?

 

[MW]

Richard, I suppose the second definite article is Greek style, while in English if the first noun is definite so is the second. We do not say "the tree of the life," but "the tree of life." The definite article is left untranslated in numerous places without affecting the sense. Your concern over the singularity of the promise is alleviated by the fact that promise is singular and not plural.

 

[bookslover]

Richard, I suppose the second definite article is Greek style, while in English if the first noun is definite so is the second. We do not say "the tree of the life," but "the tree of life." The definite article is left untranslated in numerous places without affecting the sense. Your concern over the singularity of the promise is alleviated by the fact that promise is singular and not plural.

Yes, I'd forgotten that rule for Greek (it's been a long time). Still, why the disagreements among translations, do you think?

 

[MW]

No idea, Richard. Sorry.